Bible versus Quran: 1000+ Differences & Contradictions

 

The Bible: Its Divergences from the Quran and Islam

THE GOSPEL OF JOHN

 


This likely is the apostle of Jesus, John. Written around 90 - 100 AD. John became very old (but remember that if he f.x. was 16 - 18 when Jesus (30) called him, he was 80 years old or a little more when he wrote this, not 100), and seems to be the only apostle (except Judas Iscariot) who was not killed as martyr. (Muslims boast the Quran is written just years after Muhammad, and that NT took much longer time. But if we accept that the Quran was finished in 656 AD (it may be one or a very few years earlier), that means that Muhammad's last words and deeds were 24 years old, AND HIS FIRST MUSLIM ONES IN 610 AD WERE 46 YEARS OLD WHEN UTHMAN HAD THE QURAN WRITTEN - and all the others in between. Of the 3 oldest gospels are one (Luke) from ca. 60 AD or maybe even a little earlier and two (Matt. and Mark) from ca. 65 AD. (Matt. perhaps one or a very few years later - but in any case before 70 AD). (John's is from 90 - 100 AD.) Jesus worked from 30 AD to 33 AD. This means Jesus' youngest words and deeds in Luke were some 27 years old, and his oldest some 30 years - and in Matthew and Mark some 5 years more. As for the letters and Acts: The likely oldest is Jude's which may be was written as early as in 45 AD (12 years after Jesus' death and 15 years after he started his mission). The others then are successively older, but with a few exceptions even the oldest one is from not later than 67 AD - 37 years after Jesus started his teaching and 34 years after his death. The Quran in this "competition" often boasted about by Muslims, hardly is the winner.)

Muslims may counter that bits and pieces were written down before caliph Utman made his "official" Quran. But there is no indication for that things were not noted down also in Christianity earlier than the surviving scripture - in fact there are indications for that this really happened. F.x. one possible explanation for the similarities between the 3 first Gospels, is that they took material from an earlier "book".

#001 John 1/1: "- - - the Word was with God (Yahweh*) - - -". All places in the Bible it is made clear that it is Yahweh who makes things happen - often via his (according to the Bible) son, Jesus - and not other gods like f.x. Allah. This is so obvious that we comment on it just a few times.

002 John 1/5: "The light (here figurative for Jesus*) shines in the darkness, but the darkness has not understood it". John here referred to the pagans when he talked about "darkness". But Muslims are even more strongly opposing Jesus' teaching in the Bible, than normal pagans are.

003 John 1/6: "- - - John". Here John the Baptist.

004 John 1/7: "- - - so that through him (the light - Jesus*) all men might believe". Through Jesus all men - not only the Jews - might believe. Jesus was for all men, not only for one nation like Muslims like to claim.

005 John 1/9: "The true light (Jesus*) that gives light to every man was coming into the world". To every man, not only to Jews. See John 1/7 just above.

006 John 1/12: "- - - to all who received him (Jesus and his teaching*), to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God (Yahweh*)". All those who received Jesus, not only the Jews, became children of Yahweh. A parallel to John 1/7 above.

007 John 1/14: "The Word (a synonym for Jesus*) became flesh and made his dwelling among us". Just like what the rest of NT tells about Jesus.

008 John 1/17+20+25: "- - - Christ." This is not 100% correct. Christ is the Greek version of that name (it really is a title, not a name, at least not originally), and is used in NT because NT originally was written in Greek. The word "Christ" was not used as a name/title for Jesus, however, until years after his death - the name/title used was Messiah. This fact is worth remembering when the Quran claims that Mary was told her son's name would be Christ Jesus.

009 John 1/18: "- - - God (Yahweh*) the One and Only". If Yahweh is the one and only god, what then is Allah?

010 John 1/23: "John (the Baptist*) replied in the words of Isaiah the prophet, 'I am the voice of one calling in the desert, 'make straight way for the Lord''". Is. 40/3 here easily may be a foretelling about John the Baptist and about Jesus.

011 John 1/26: "(John the Baptist said:) - - - among you (the Jews*) stands one you do not know - - -". John was foretelling the coming of a greater person, and saying that this person already was among them (even though Jesus had not started his work and preaching yet). When you meet Muslims claiming that John was talking about Muhammad, remember this verse; John was talking about someone who already lived, whereas Muhammad was born more than 500 years later (around 570 AD). John did not talk about Muhammad.

012 John 1/29a: "The next day John saw Jesus coming toward him and said, 'Look, the Lamb of God (Yahweh*) who takes away the sin of the world". If the prophet John the Baptist (accepted as a prophet both by the Bible and by the Quran) told the truth, Jesus for one thing was connected to Yahweh, and for another thing was able to take away sins - a point to beware of when Muslims denies Jesus by his death took on himself the sins of the humans and thus took the sins away from his followers. It does not prove he did so, but it indicates that he had the power to do it.

013 John 1/29b: "- - - sin - - -". Remember that what is sin in the Bible and what is sin in the Quran - and the other way around - may be widely different. This is one of the far more than 100% proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - if they had been, sin in the Bible and sin in the Quran had been more or less identical or at least very similar. (Muslims may try to explain this away by claiming that the Bible is falsified, but we remind you that both science and Islam strongly have proved that this claim is wrong.)

By the way: The same goes for words like righteous, just, right, good, bad, unjust, offence, wrong, crime, etc. They may cover very different meanings in the two books. Also Acts 3/14 is relevant here. The differences in the two books' moral etc. codes behind the differences in the meanings of such words, are strong proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god.

014 John 1/30: "This is the one (Jesus*) I (the prophet John the Baptist*) meant when I said, 'A man who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me'". For one thing John here says that Jesus is the one whom he waited for, and for another thing he tells that Jesus was from earlier times than him, even though Jesus here on Earth was younger than him (about half a year younger) - i.e. Jesus was from eternity he may have meant.

015 John 1/32a: "I (the prophet John the Baptist*) saw the Spirit come down from heaven as a dove and remain on him (Jesus*)". If this is true, it proves that something supernatural was involved.

016 John 1/32b+33b: "- - - the Spirit - - -". One of the names for the Holy Spirit.

017 John 1/33a: "(Yahweh said:*) The man whom you (the prophet John the Baptist*) see the Spirit come down on and remain is he who will baptize with the Holy Spirit". If John told the truth, this is a proof for a connection between Yahweh and Jesus.

018 John 1/34: "I (the prophet John the Baptist*) have seen and I testify that this (Jesus*) is the Son of God (Yahweh*)". Words not possible to misunderstand - and strongly contradicting Muhammad’s never documented claims that Jesus was not the son of the god (if it was accepted that Jesus was so, everybody of course would see that Muhammad's never proved claim that he himself was the greatest of prophets, could not be true).

019 John 1/36: "Look, the Lamb of God (Yahweh*)". To the prophet John the Baptist Jesus was the Lamb of Yahweh. See John 1/34 just above.

020 John 1/41: "'We (some early disciples*) have found the Messiah' (that is Christ)". As we have mentioned other places the name Christ is not from the OT. There the name Messiah was used - a name which means "the anointed one" (which may be another title for king, as the old Jewish kings were installed by being anointed). The New Testament originally was written in Greek, and instead of using the Hebrew word Messiah, the writers used the corresponding Greek word "Christos", which then became Christ. Worth to rember when Muhammad claims that Mary was told her firstborn (she at least got 4 more sons and 3 daughters according to the Bible) would get the name Christ Jesus - the name/title Christ was not coined for him until perhaps 50 or more years later.

##021 John 1/45: "We (some of the early disciples*) have found the one Moses wrote about in the Law (remember here that "the Law" was used as a name for the 5 "Books of Moses" - here referring to 5. Mos. chapter 18*) - - -". A sentence in the Bible no Muslim ever mention, because they try to claim that Moses talked about Muhammad in that chapter- a claim which takes so much twisting of the texts and so much overlooking of the context and of all relevant other points in the Bible, that it obviously is wrong. (Islam HAS to find Muhammad in the Bible, because the Quran claims he is clearly foretold both in OT and NT - if they do not find him there, the Quran is wrong, which is too difficult and dangerous for the religion to admit, and thus they cherry-pick quotes out of context, and then twist the words - or make up another context - enough to claim they have gotten the answers they like. But how reliable is a religion that does things like this? - has to do so to cover up mistakes which tell that the claimed holy book is not backed by a god. And how much more dishonesty do they use to make the religion look like a real one?

We may add that Islam's main claim about Muhammad in the OT of the Bible is just in 1. Mos. chapter 18 - verses 15 and 18. But it is very sure from the context that Moses here was not talking about an Arab, but about a Jew - and it is highly likely that this Jew was Jesus.

022 John 1/51: "- - - Son of Man - - -". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

023 John 2/11: "This, the first of his miraculous signs, Jesus performed in Cana in Galilee". See Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

024 John 2/16: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father's (Yahweh's*) house (the Temple*) - - -". A clear statement - and strongly contradicting Muhammad's claim that Jesus was not the son of Yahweh.

025 John 2/23: "- - - many people saw the miraculous signs he was doing and believed in his name". This is the completely normal reaction for humans seeing real miracles, as real miracles are proofs for that something supernatural is involved.

Compare this to Muhammad's illogical claims about the reason for that Allah made no miracles, was that it would make no-one believe anyhow (even more illogical as in addition to that, a claimed good god might wish to do good deeds - f.x. miracles to heal or in other ways help some people). Also see Luke 6/19 above and Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

026 John 3/2-3: "Rabbi (Jesus*), we (Nicodemus and likely some more*) know you are a teacher (rabbi = teacher*) who has come from God (Yahweh*). For no one could perform the miraculous signs you are doing if God (Yahweh*) were not with him". Clear words, clear logic. Also see Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

027 John 3/5+6+8: "- - - the Spirit - - -". One of the names for the Holy Spirit - like Allah and like Muhammad it had several names. Something worth remembering when you meet Muslims claiming Jesus could not mean the Holy Spirit when he promised his disciples to send them a helper, because he used another name "the Spirit of Truth". And among all the millions of possibilities (f.x. all the angels) there existed if their claim had been true and Jesus did not mean the Holy Spirit, Muslims claim that the only possible being he could mean, was Muhammad - a man living half a millennium after the disciple were all dead, and who on top of all were far from a spirit of truth - cheating, laying, betraying, and breaking his words/oaths (see f.x. verses 2/225a, 5/89a, 16/91b, and 66/2a in the Quran) , and accepting that his followers did/do the same.

028 John 3/13+14: "- - - Son of Man". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

029 John 3/15: "- - - that everyone who believes in him (Jesus*) may have eternal life". Jesus was for everyone, not just for the Jews, like Muslims try to claim.

030 John 3/16a: "For God (Yahweh) so loved the world - - -". The word "love" is central in NT, whereas in the Quran it is infrequently used except among persons with close relationship. One of the fundamental differences between especially NT and the Quran, and a clear indication for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - and their teachings not the same religion.

031 John 3/16b: "For God (Yahweh) so loved the world that he gave his one and only son (Jesus*) - - -". Straight words - and directly contradicting Muhammad and Islam claiming - without any documentation - that Jesus just was an ordinary man and not son of Yahweh.

###032 John 3/16c: "For God (Yahweh) so loved the world that he gave his one and only son, that whoever believes in him (Jesus*) shall not perish but have eternal life". This sometimes is called "the Little Bible", because it is the essence of NT. The essence of the war religion Islam, and especially the surahs from Medina (the weightiest ones according to Islam's rules for abrogation - making verses invalid when there are "collisions" in the content of verses) is totally different - fighting and war is the surest way to Allah's Paradise. A 200% proof for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god.

033 John 3/17a: "For God (Yahweh*) did not send his Son (Jesus*) into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world - - -". Not only the Jews, but the world - all humans.

034 John 3/17b: "For God (Yahweh*) did not send his Son (Jesus*) into the world to condemn the world, but to save the world through him". A very clear message: Jesus was/is for all according to the Bible - the world is to be saved through Jesus. If this sentence - and many others in the Bible - is true, Muhammad definitely was wrong - and Islam is wrong - when he/they claimed/claim that Jesus only was for the Jews (and only Muhammad for the world).

035 John 3/17c: "- - - his (Yahweh's*) Son (Jesus*) - - -". There is no doubt at all that NT means Jesus was the son of Yahweh (and if some quotes are correct, Yahweh means the same). We also stress that this also was said by Jesus, a person also the Quran says was reliable.

036 John 3/18a: "Whoever believes in him (Jesus*) is not condemned - - -". "Whoever" - all humans - not only believing Jews.

037 John 3/18b: "Whoever believes in him (Jesus*) is not condemned, but whoever does not believe (in Jesus*) stands condemned in the name of God's (Yahweh's*) one and only Son (Jesus*)". The belief in Jesus is for all - and disbelief means condemnation. Thought provoking for among others the Muslims if this quote of Jesus' words is true?

038 John 3/18c: "- - - God's (Yahweh's*) one and only Son (Jesus*)". Jesus' words here are not possible to misunderstand - and they are strongly contradicting Muhammad's never documented claims that Jesus just was an ordinary person and not the son of Yahweh (a claim necessary for the self proclaimed and never proved prophet Muhammad, if he wanted to claim - still without documentation - that he was the greatest ever of prophets).

039 John 3/19: "Light (here a name for Jesus and his work*) has come into the world - - -". It/he has come into the world, not only into Israel. Another contradiction of Islam's claim that Jesus only was for the Jews (and only Muhammad for the world).

040 John 3/21: "- - - whoever lives by the truth comes into the light - - -". Where then will Muhammad come, who believed in the use of dishonesty (al-Taqiyya - the lawful lie, Kitman - the lawful half-truth, Hilah - the lawful pretending/circumnavigation, and in betrayal/deceit, and even the breaking of words/promises/oaths (see f.x. verses 2/225a, 5/89a, 16/91b, and 66/2a in the Quran)) if that gave a better result - pay expiation afterwards if necessary? Will he end in Heaven or Hell according to these words from Jesus?

041 John 3/22+23+26: "- - - baptized". This ceremony is most essential to Yahweh and to Jesus according to NT. In the Quran there is no demand at all for baptizing. One more proof for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - if they had been, the message about such a central symbolic ceremony had been similar or identical in the two books.

042 John 3/28a: "I (the prophet John the Baptist*) am not Christ (Jesus*) but I am sent ahead of him". It is very clear also from other places in the Bible that John meant Jesus was the awaited one from Yahweh, Messiah/Christ.

043 John 3/28b: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

044 John 3/31: "The one (Jesus*) who comes from above (Heaven*) is above all - - -". The prophet John the Baptist here says that Jesus comes from Heaven, and is above all humans. If true Muhammad in case at the very best is not a great prophet, and likely a false prophet (if he at all really was a prophet - he was unable to make prophesies).

045 John 3/35: "The Father (Yahweh*) loves the Son (Jesus*) - - -". According to the prophet John the Baptist, Jesus is the son of Yahweh - Muhammad will have to prove his words about Jesus being just a normal man. But Muhammad never proved anything at all of the central points in his new religion.

046 John 3/36a: "Whoever believes in the Son (Jesus*) - - -". See John 3/35 just above.

047 John 3/36b: "Whoever believes in the Son (Jesus*) has eternal life - - -". "Whoever" believes in Jesus, not only the Jews - Jesus was for everybody, not only for the Jews. This in spite of Islam's claim about the opposite, and about that only Muhammad was for all the world.

048 John 4/2: "- - - baptizing - - -". See John 3/22 above.

049 John 4/18: "The fact is, you have had five husbands, and the man you now have is not your husband". Jesus was able to "see the unseen" - a prophet - Muhammad not.

050 John 4/22: "- - - salvation is from the Jews". "From the Jews", not "(only*) for the Jews".

051 John 4/24: "God (Yahweh*) is spirit, and his worshippers must worship in spirit and truth". Muhammad definitely did not always respect the truth (al-Taqiyya - the lawful lie, Kitman - the lawful half-truth (both based on Muhammad's deeds and words), Hilah - lawful pretention/circumnavigating, betrayal/deceit, and broken words/promises/oaths (see f.x. verses 2/225a, 5/89a, 16/91b, and 66/2a in the Quran) ). He even lied in the Quran - f.x. when he said no-one would come to believe even if Allah made miracles (any man as intelligent and knowing so much about people like Muhammad did, would even himself know he was lying each time he said so - this even more so as he himself told that all the sorcerers of Pharaoh Ramses II (or according to some scientists perhaps his successor Merneptah, also named Merenptah - but in that case the Exodus was a bit later than 1235, as this pharaoh reigned from 1213 BC to 1203 BC, and not much earlier like Islam likes to claim, to be able to find a pharaoh one does not know how died, and thus one who may have drowned) became good and believing Muslims because Moses made some medium miracles, and even though he knew about the effect of Jesus' miracles). Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

As a "brother" of al-Taqiyya and Kitman, etc., we should also specify the tradition of the less known "Hilah": A "device to stop, hinder, or trick - - -. Strategy to avoid or circumvent legal principles or rigid constructs. - - - utilized - - - to solve contradictions between (political powers, cultural choices, etc*) and Quranic principles". (The Oxford Dictionary of Islam). In plain words: ways/tricks of seemingly or formally being honest or correct, while in reality being dishonest or incorrect. It seems that this aspect of "the religion of truth" was first campaigned of the Hanifi law school, but later utilized also by the other 3 Muslim law schools. "Hilah" is dishonesty in disguise. True honesty is not always central in Islam and among Islam's religious and moral forefront.

052 John 4/25+29: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

053 John 4/25-26: "The (Samarian*) woman said, 'I know that Messiah' (called Christ) 'is coming. When he comes, he will explain everything to us'. Then Jesus declared, 'I who you speak to am he'". In clear words: Jesus declares he is Messiah (Christ).

054 John 4/42: "- - - we (many Samarians*) know that this man (Jesus*) really is the Savior of the world". The world, not only the Jews.

055 John 4/45: "When he (Jesus*) arrived in Galilee, the Galileans welcomed him. They had seen all (the miracles*) he had done in Jerusalem - - -". They had seen his miracles and believed in him - the natural reaction at least for lots of humans. Compare this to Muhammad's fast talk/excuse/explaining away: He claimed Allah made no miracles because it would make nobody believe anyhow. No person with some brain, knowledge, and understanding of human nature is able to believe this - not unless the wishful thinking is stronger than the brain. Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

056 John 4/46: "Once more he (Jesus*) visited Cana in Galilee, where he had turned water into wine". One of the big differences between Jesus and Muhammad - if the old books are reliable on this point - is that Jesus had the power to foresee, to make prophesies, and to make miracles, and thus prove he represented something or someone supernatural. Muhammad had none of these powers - and the only things he proved were that he was intelligent, that he understood people, and that he was good at talking - yes, and that crime (stealing, robbing, extortion, suppression, slave taking, etc.) often pays. Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

057 John 4/48: "'Unless you people see miraculous signs and wonders', Jesus told him, 'you will never believe". Exactly the opposite of Muhammad's illogical claims when he tried to explain away why Allah and he were unable to make miracles or in any other way prove anything at all (Islam only is built on not proved claims and as unproved statements (quite a number of then even are wrong). Also see Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

058 John 4/53a. "Then the father (of a sick boy*) realized that this was the exact time at which Jesus had said to him (the father*), 'Your son will live'". See Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

059 John 4/53b. "Then the father (of a sick boy*) realized that this was the exact time at which Jesus had said to him (the father*), 'Your son will live'. So he (the father of the healed boy*) and all his household believed". This is a normal reaction to proofs: If something really is proved, one easily believes what is proved. If this story is true, Jesus here proved that he was or was connect to something supernatural. Compare this to Muhammad's illogical claims that Allah did not perform miracles, because it would make nobody believe anyhow. This explaining away made by Muhammad simply is made up and wrong. And what is worse: An intelligent man like Muhammad had to know it was wrong - he knew he was lying each time he told claims like this. Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

060 John 4/54: "This was the second miraculous sign that Jesus performed, having come from Judea to Galilee. See Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

061 John 5/8-9: "Then Jesus said to him (an invalid*), 'Get up. Pick your mat and walk'. At once the man was cured - - -". See Luke 6/19 and 7/16-17 above.

062 John 5/9+10+16+18 : "- - - Sabbath - - -". One of the proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god. See Eze. 20/12, Eze. 20/20a, 22/26, and Eze. 23/38 above.

063 John 5/17: "My (Jesus*) Father (Yahweh*) - - -". A very short and clear statement from one both the Bible and the Quran claim was honest and reliable.

064 John 5/18a: "- - - he (Jesus*) was even calling God (Yahweh*) his father - - -". One more statement in the Bible saying Jesus called Yahweh his father.

065 John 5/18b: "- - - he (Jesus*) was even calling God (Yahweh*) his father, making himself equal with God (Yahweh*)". Wrong. Jesus always distinguishes between himself and Yahweh - it is only Yahweh who is the god. Jesus made no secret in the Bible of that he himself was not a god, but got his power from Yahweh. (The claim that Jesus is a god himself, is made by believers - it is not said by Jesus or any other place in the Bible. To use a parallel: Jesus is a crown prince, but not a king, according to the Bible.)

066 John 5/19a: "- - - the Son (Jesus*) can do nothing by himself - - -". There only is one god, Yahweh. Jesus according to this depends on Yahweh's power, something he made no secret of, according to the Bible.

067 John 5/19b+20+22+23+25: "- - - Son - - -". Some of the many places in the Bible where Jesus directly or indirectly tells he is the son of Yahweh - in stark contradiction to Muhammad's claim that Jesus just was an ordinary man.

068 John 5/19c+20+21+22+23: "- - - Father - - -". Some of the many places in the Bible where Jesus directly or indirectly tells Yahweh is his father - in stark contradiction to Muhammad's claim that Jesus just was an ordinary man.

069 John 5/24: "- - - whoever hears my (Jesus*) word and believes him who sent me (Yahweh*) has eternal life - - -". "Whoever", not "any Jew" - Jesus' words were for everyone, this in spite of Muhammad's and Islam's claim that Jesus only was for the Jews (and Muhammad for all the world).

##070 John 5/25a: "- - - (I, Jesus, am*) the Son of God (Yahweh*) - - -". It is not possible to be clearer about this than here. It is Jesus who is quoted here, and if he tells the truth, then Muhammad and the Quran are wrong. And remember here that both science and Islam (not because of free will) thoroughly have proved that the Bible is not falsified. (There are mistakes, though far fewer than in the Quran, but no proved falsification.)

071 John 5/25b: "- - - those who hear (= listen to Jesus*) will live (in the next life*)". Once more: "Those who hear" - not "Those Jews who hear". In spite of Muhammad’s never documented claims, and in spite of that Jesus practiced "the Jews first" (there may have been f.x. social reasons for that - social contact with non-Jews (Gentiles) was partly unacceptable at that time) - in spite of this, it is obvious that according to the Bible Jesus and his teaching were for all people.

072 John 5/26+36+37+45: "- - - Father - - -". Some of the many places in the Bible where Jesus directly or indirectly tells Yahweh is his father - in stark contradiction to Muhammad's claim that Jesus just was an ordinary man.

073 John 5/26a: "- - - he (Yahweh*) has granted the Son (Jesus*) to have life in itself". It is granted by Yahweh - the source of power.

073a John 5/26b: "- - - Son - - -". One of the many places in the Bible where Jesus directly or indirectly tells he is the son of Yahweh - in stark contradiction to Muhammad's claim that Jesus just was an ordinary man.

073b John 5/27: "- - - he (Yahweh*) has given him (Jesus*) authority - - -". It is given Jesus by Yahweh - the source of power.

074 John 5/27: "- - - Son of Man". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

075 John 5/30: "By myself I (Jesus*) can do nothing - - -". There is only one god; Yahweh. Jesus gets his power from him according to NT. (Muhammad - and most Muslims - believe Christians have 3 gods; Yahweh, Jesus, and Mary(!) - Muhammad believed the Trinity consisted of Yahweh, Jesus and Mary!! (Correct is Yahweh, Jesus and the Holy Spirit - no god had made such a stupid and obvious mistake). But there only is one. A king may have a crown prince and a chief of staff or something, but there all the same is only one king.)

We may add that in Nicaea they agreed on that Yahweh and Jesus were "of the same being" - the Holy Spirit later added into the expression "three 'persons', one being". The dogma got its present form late in the fourth century under "the Cappadocia Fathers" - Basil of Caesarea, Gregory of Nyssa, and Gregory of Naziansus. This dogma may be based - at least partly - on Jesus' words that Yahweh and he was one + om f.x. Paul in 2. Cor. 17+18 saying "- - - the Lord is the Spirit - - -". On the other hand it is very clear that Jesus said that Yahweh and he were one - though perhaps figuratively meant.

We may also add that the trinity formally is a central detail in Christian teaching, but only a detail, and only a formality. If it should turn out that the Trinity is wrong, it would reduce Jesus a little but not much, and it would have no effect on the basic points of the religion.

076 John 5/36a: "For the very work that the Father (Yahweh*) has given me (Jesus*) to finish, and which I am doing, testifies that the Father has sent me". If what the Bible tells about Jesus and his work on Earth is true, it at least proves and testifies that something or someone supernatural was involved.

076a John 5/36b: "- - - the very work that the Father (Yahweh*) has given me (Jesus*) - - -". What Jesus did was Yahweh's dicition. Jesus is Yahweh's helper and likely second of command, but Yahweh is the one and only boss.

076b John 5/36c: "- - - the Father (Yahweh*) has sent me (Jesus*)". Jesus is the representative - a messenger - from Yahweh.

077 John 5/39: "These (OT) are the Scriptures that testify about me (Jesus*)". There are many points in OT which at least seems to be foretelling about Jesus. In spite of the Quran's claims, there is no foretelling about Muhammad in the Bible. (Muhammad, the Quran, Islam, and most Muslims claim there is, but these without exception are quoted out of context and/or twisted so as to fit their wishful thinking.)

078 John 5/43a: "I (Jesus*) have come in my Father's (Yahweh's*) name - - -". Jesus is a representative - a messenger - from Yahewh.

078a John 5/43b: "- - - my (Jesus*) Father's (Yahweh's*) name - - -". There is no doubt that according to NT Jesus really means Yahweh is his father.

079 John 5/44: "- - - the only God (Yahweh*) - - -". If Yahweh is the only god like Jesus says here, what then about Allah? (if he exists - there is not one proof for his existence).

##080 John 5/46: "If you (Jews*) believed in Moses, you would believe in me, for he wrote about me". It is likely Jesus here was thinking about 5. Mos. 18/15 and 18/18 - the very verses Muslims claim are about Muhammad (but anybody reading 5. Mos. 18/15 or 18/18, also should read 5. Mos. 17/15 and 5. Mos. 20/8 which - like other points in 5. Mos. - document what Moses in his speech meant with "your (the Jews'*) own brothers"). The context and relevant other verses in OT shows Moses may well have spoken about Jesus, but that he impossibly can have spoken about Muhammad - see f.x. relevant places in "1000+ Mistakes in the Quran".

But there is one more point here concerning Muhammad in the Bible: The word used in the Arab original, "maktub" in the Quran, is stronger than just "written". Verse 7/157 in reality states that Muhammad is clearly mentioned in the Torah (the 5 "Books of Moses") and in the Gospels. This is obviously wrong - not even the strongest believer in Islam can claim that Muhammad is clearly mentioned any of those two places (that is why they have to cherry-pick points and claim wrong meanings of the texts to be able to find him). Thus no matter if Muhammad really was hidden in 5. Mos. 18/15 and 18/18 or other places, the Quran all the same had been wrong, because Muhammad definitely is not clearly mentioned anywhere in the Bible.

081 John 6/2: "- - - a great crowd of people followed him (Jesus*) Because they saw the miraculous signs he had performed on the sick". This would be a very normal reaction for people getting real proofs for a teaching. Compare this to Muhammad's illogical claim that Allah and Muhammad did not make any miracles because miracles would have no positive effect anyhow. This is so obviously wrong, that it is clear that an intelligent man like Muhammad knew he was lying each time he said it - even when he said it in the Quran. Also see Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

082 John 6/12: "When they all (5ooo men, and according to other places in the Quran + women and children*) had had enough to eat (from 5 loaves of bread + 2 fishes*) - - -". As mentioned many other places one of the big differences between Yahweh/Jesus and Allah/Muhammad is that if the old books tell the truth, Yahweh proved his existence and Jesus his connection to something or someone supernatural, whereas Allah and Muhammad were unable to prove anything at all of any religious essence - Muhammad only had and Islam and the Quran only had and have claims, excuses and tries to explain things away to offer. Also see Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

083 John 6/19: "- - - they (the disciples*) saw Jesus approaching the boat, walking on the water - - -". See Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

084 John 6/27: "- - - Son of Man - - -". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

085 John 6/29: "The work of God (Yahweh*) is this: to believe in the one he has sent (Jesus*)". To what degree did Muhammad believe in Jesus? - he believed he had existed, but believed little in his teaching (most likely he simply did not know it - his main sources were legends, etc.)Did Muhammad then do the work of God/Yahweh?

086 John 6/32+40c: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father (Yahweh*) - - -". There is no doubt that according to NT Jesus really means Yahweh is his father.

087 John 6/37a: "- - - the Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Similar to John 6/32 just above, but not a strong.

088 John 6/37b: "- - - whoever comes to me (Jesus*) I will never drive away". "Whoever", not only the Jews - Jesus and his words were for everyone, this in spite of Muhammad's and Islam's claim that Jesus only was for the Jews (and Muhammad for all the world).

089 John 6/38: "For I (Jesus*) have come down from heaven - - -". If this is true, it is very clear that Muhammad was wrong when he claimed Jesus was just an ordinary man - no ordinary man comes down from heaven. (Obviously Jesus must have meant that the non-physical part of his being - call it soul or mind or spirit or whatever - came from Heaven.)

090 John 6/40a: "For my Father's will is that everyone who looks to the Son (Jesus*) and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise him (any believer*) up at the last day". Once again: "Everyone" not "all Jews". Jesus was for everyone (even though may be the Jews first). Also Jesus here indirectly, but very clearly tells he is not an ordinary man - a strong contradiction to Muhammad's claims.

091 John 6/40b: "For my Father's will is that everyone who looks to the Son (Jesus*) and believes in him shall have eternal life, and I will raise him (any believer*) up at the last day". Does this indirectly tell that the ones not believing in Jesus and his teaching, will not have eternal life (= end in Heaven)? In case: What then about Muslims in the Bible is a true religion?

092 John 6/40c: "- - - the Son - - -". One of the many places in NT where Jesus tells he is the son of Yahweh.

093 John 6/42: "I (Jesus*) came down from heaven". See John 6/38 above.

094 John 6/44+46+57+65: "- - - the Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Some of the many places in NT where Jesus indicates that Yahweh is his father.

095 John 6/45: "Everyone who listens to the Father (Yahweh*) and learns from him, comes to me (Jesus*)". "Everyone", not "every Jew". One of the many places in NT which clearly shows Jesus was for everybody, not just for the Jews - this even though Jesus clearly worked on the principle "first the Jews and then the Gentiles (non-Jews*). There is no indication in the Bible for the reason for this. There may be a religious reason for it - that the Jews for some unknown reason were more valuable or central to him or Yahweh. Or a more earthly reason - f.x. the social stigma and thus problems it at that time gave to have too much contact with non-Jews, to be quisling so to say.

096 John 6/51: "This bread is my (Jesus'*) flesh, which I will give for the life of the world". The "bread" and "flesh" here are parables for Jesus' teaching/religion. Jesus very often used parables.

097 John 6/53: "- - - unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink his blood - - -". Like in John 6/51 just above, the words "flesh" and "blood" are parables for Jesus' teaching and religion.

098 John 6/54a: "Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood - - -". A parallel to John 6/51 and John 6/53 above.

099 John 6/54b: "Whoever eats my flesh and drinks my blood - - -". "Whoever", not only "any Jew" - Jesus and his teaching were for anybody - in spite of Islam's claims about Jesus being only for Jews and only Muhammad for all the world. Also see John 6/45 above.

100 John 6/55: "For my (Jesus'*) flesh is real food and my blood is real drink". = My (Jesus'*) teaching is reality and reliable - see f.x. John 6/51 and John 6/53 above.

101 John 6/56: "Whoever eats my (Jesus'*) flesh and drinks my blood (see John 6/55 just above*) - - -". "Whoever", not only "any Jew" - Jesus and his teaching were for anybody - in spite of Islam's claims about Jesus being only for Jews and only Muhammad for all the world. Also see John 6/45 above.

102 John 6/57a: "- - - the one who feeds on me (Jesus*) - - -". A parable for "the one who believes in me and my religion".

103 John 6/57b: "- - - the one who feeds on me (Jesus*) - - -". "the one", not "the Jew" - Jesus and his teaching were for anybody - in spite of Islam's claims about Jesus being only was for the Jews and only Muhammad for all the world. Also see John 6/45 above.

104 John 6/58a: "This is the bread (see John 6/58a just below*) which came down from heaven". If Jesus' religion is the one which came down from heaven, from where then did Muhammad's very different religion come?

105 John 6/58b: "- - - the bread - - -". Here parable for Jesus' teaching/religion. Jesus very often used parables.

106 John 6/58c: "- - - he who feeds on this bread (Jesus' teaching/religion - see John 6/58b just above*) will live forever (= end up in Paradise*)". "He who feeds", not only "the Jew who feeds". See f.x. John 6/57b above.

107 John 6/62a: "What if you (some Jews*) see the Son of Man ascent to where he was before!" Indicating that Jesus came from Heaven above.

108 John 6/62b: "- - - Son of Man - - -". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

109 John 6/63: "The Spirit - - -". One of the several names for the Holy Spirit. The word "Spirit" written with capital S normally in the Bible refers to the Holy Spirit.

110 John 6/68: "You (Jesus*) have the word of eternal life". If the disciples of Jesus were right on this, what then of the words of Muhammad? - his teaching was very different from the one of Jesus (directly opposite on many points - "the religion of discrimination and war" vs. "the religion of love").

111 John 7/3: "- - - the miracles you (Jesus*) do". Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

112 John 7/18a: "He who speaks on his own does so to gain honor (and often riches*) for himself - - -". Muhammad wanted respect and power - and riches, at least for bribes, and women. Does this divulge anything about him in this connection?

113 JOHN 7/18b: "He who speaks on his own does so to gain honor (and often riches*) for himself, but he who works for the honor of the one who sent him is a man of truth; there is nothing false about him". What does this tell about Muhammad, who laid the foundations for al-Taqiyya (the lawful lie), Kitman (the lawful half-truth), betrayal and deception ("war is deceit/betrayal"), and the breaking of words/promises/oaths "it that gives a better result (see f.x. verses 2/225a, 5/89a, 16/91b, and 66/2a in the Quran) "?

As a "brother" of al-Taqiyya and Kitman, etc., we should also mention the tradition for "Hilah": A "device to stop, hinder, or trick - - -. Strategy to avoid or circumvent legal principles or rigid constructs. - - - utilized - - - to solve contradictions between (political powers, cultural choices, etc*) and Quranic principles". (The Oxford Dictionary of Islam). In plain words: ways/tricks of seemingly or formally being honest or correct, while in reality being dishonest or incorrect. It seems that this aspect of "the religion of truth" was first campaigned of the Hanifi law school, but later utilized also by the other 3 Muslim law schools. "Hilah" is dishonesty in disguise. True honesty is not always central in Islam and among Islam's religious and moral forefront.

114 John 7/26+27+31b+41: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

115 John 7/31a: "When Christ comes (skeptics did not believe Jesus was Messiah/Christ*), will he do more miraculous signs than this man (Jesus*)". If this quote is correct, it is a strong proof for that Jesus did miracles. Also see Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

116 John 7/34+36: "- - - where I (Jesus*) am, you (living people*) cannot come". It here is indicated that Jesus speaks about Heaven, where he is to go, and where living people cannot go.

117 John 7/39: "- - - the Spirit - - -". See John 3/5 above.

118 John 8/7a: "(Jesus said:*) If any one of you is without sin, let him be the first to throw a stone at her (a woman caught in adultery*)". According to Hadiths Muhammad himself took part in at least one stoning of a woman caught in adultery. There is a deep and fundamental difference between the mentality and moral of Jesus compared to Muhammad's - Jesus forgave, Muhammad stoned. (Beware that the verses 8/1 through 8/11 - included this one - may be a later addition.)

119 John 8/7b: "- - - sin - - -". Because there are - sometimes great - differences between f.x. the moral codes of the Bible and the Quran, there often are - sometimes great - differences between what is a sin in the Bible and in the Quran. Similar goes for a number of other words and expressions - f.x. right, wrong, righteous, good, bad, evil, wicked, justice, etc. Also see John 1/29b above. (Beware that the verses 8/1 through 8/11 - included this one - may be a later addition.)

120 John 8/12: "Whoever follows me (Jesus*) will never walk in darkness, but will have the light of life". "Whoever", not only "any Jew". Jesus and his teaching and religion were for everyone, not only for the Jews - worth remembering each time Muslims claim that Jesus was for the Jews only, whereas Muhammad was for all the world.

121 John 8/14: "- - - I (Jesus*) know where I came from and where I am going". Jesus here indicates that he came from Heaven and is going back there.

122 John 8/16+19+27+28+38: "- - - Father - - -". Some of the places in NT where Jesus tells or indicates that Yahweh id his father.

123 John 8/21a+22: "- - - you (some Pharisees*) will die in sin. Where I go, you cannot come". According to the Bible Jesus was to go to Heaven, and persons who die in sin cannot go to Heaven.

124 John 8/21b+24: "- - - sin - - -". See John 1/29b and 8/7b above.

125 John 8/23: "- - - I (Jesus*) am not of this world". If the Bible tells the truth about Jesus: A clear message to Muhammad and anyone else claiming - always without documentation - that Jesus just was an ordinary man.

126 John 8/25: "(I am*) Just what I (Jesus*) have been claiming all along". Jesus had all along claimed he was the son of Yahweh - this is very clear from many places in NT.

127 John 8/26: "- - - what I (Jesus*) have heard from him (Yahweh*) I tell the world". As said; according to many places in the Bible, there is just one god, Yahweh. But according to the Bible Jesus is his representative and son. As said: It is quite possible to be of royal stock without being the king - and also it is nothing unusual for a king to use a relative, included a son, as his representative.

128 John 8/27: "- - - his Father (Yahweh*)". Clear words.

129 John 8/28a: "- - - Son of Man - - -". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

130 John 8/28b: "- - - I (Jesus*) am the one I claim to be - - -". See John 8/25 above.

131 John 8/28c: "- - - I (Jesus*) do nothing on my own but speak just what my Father ((Yahweh*) has taught me". Only Yahweh is god and decides things - Jesus acted according to Yahweh's words and plans, and got his power from him.

132 John 8/34a: "- - - everyone who sins is a slave to sin". A large number of points advised, commended, or ordered, in the Quran, are sins according to normal codes of moral, etc., included the codes preached by Jesus - cfr. f.x. "do against others like you want others do against you". If this verse is correct, it then tells something about Muhammad, about Muslims and about Islam.

133 John 8/34b: "- - - sin - - -". Remember that what is sin in the Bible and what is sin in the Quran - and the other way around - may be widely different. This is one of the far more than 100% proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - if they had been, sin in the Bible and sin in the Quran had been more or less identical or at least very similar. (Muslims may try to explain this away by claiming that the Bible is falsified, but we remind you that both science and Islam strongly have proved that this claim is wrong.)

By the way: The same goes for words like righteous, just, right, good, bad, unjust, offence, wrong, crime, etc. They may cover very different meanings in the two books. Also Acts 3/14 is relevant here. The differences in the two books' moral etc. codes behind the differences in the meanings of such words, are strong proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god.

134 John 8/36: "- - - the Son - - -". One of the many places in NT where Jesus indicates or tells he is the son of Yahweh.

135 John 8/38: "- - - what I (Jesus*) have seen in the Father's (Yahweh's*) presence - - -". Jesus here tells he has been in the presence of Yahweh, which means in Heaven.

136 John 8/41: "The only Father we (some Jews*) have is God (Yahweh*) himself". They here claimed - rightly or wrongly - that their religious father was Yahweh.

137 John 8/42: "- - - I (Jesus*) came from God (Yahweh*) - - -". A very clear message if the Bible tells the truth.

138 John 8/44: "He (the Devil*) was a murderer from the beginning, not holding to the truth, for there is no truth in him". For a comparison: There is no indication in the Quran for that Iblis (the Devil according to the Quran) was a murderer or one using lies before he became the Devil. On the contrary he was present among the angels and thus accepted by the god. A very strong indication for that also the Bible's devil is different from the Quran's, just like the two gods are very different.

139 John 8/46a: "Can any of you (some Jews*) prove me (Jesus*) guilty of sin?" No Jew could, but any Muslim could and can, as Jesus f.x. never went to the "holy" Mecca/Kabah, was pacifist, refused to stone an adulterous woman, etc., etc. There were/are(?) big differences between Yahweh and Allah and between Jesus and Muhammad.

140 John 8/46b: "- - - sin - - -". See John 8/7b and 8/34b above.

141 John 8/49: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Words not possible to misunderstand - and from a person even the Quran respects as reliable and telling the truth. But strongly contradicting Muhammad's never documented claims about Jesus' just being an ordinary man. We simply are back to: Who is most reliable? - Jesus? - or Muhammad with his belief in the use of dishonesty when that gave better result?

142 John 8/51a: "- - - if anyone keeps my word, he will never see death". = If anyone believe in my (Jesus*) teaching, he will continue to live in Heaven.

143 John 8/51b: "- - - if anyone keeps my word, he will never see death". "Anyone", not "any Jew". Jesus and his teaching were for anyone - this in spite of Muslim's claims that Jesus just was for the Jews (and only Muhammad for the world).

144 John 8/54: "My (Jesus'*) Father (Yahweh*), whom you (Jews*) claim as your God - - -". See John 8/49 above.

145 John 8/58: "- - - before Abraham was born, I (Jesus*) am". If Jesus was/is the son of Yahweh, he easily may have existed since long before Abraham.

146 John 9/7: "So the (blind*) man went (on Jesus' order*) and washed, and came home seeing". See Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

147 John 9/11: "So I (the former blind man*) went and washed, and then I could see." See Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

148 John 9/13+16 : "- - - Sabbath - - -". One of the proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god. See Eze. 20/12, Eze. 20/20a, 22/26, and Eze. 23/38 above.

149 John 9/14: "- - - opened the man's eyes - - -". The same man as in John 9/7 and John 9/11 above.

150 John 9/16a: "(Jesus can be no sinner as he does*) such miraculous signs - - -". See Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

151 John 9/16b+24+25+31: "- - - sinner - - -". See Luke 15/7 and John 8/7b above.

152 John 9/22: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

153 John 9/34+41: "- - - sin - - -". Because there are - sometimes great - differences between f.x. the moral codes of the Bible and the Quran, there often are - sometimes great - differences between what is a sin in the Bible and in the Quran. Similar goes for a number of other words and expressions - f.x. right, wrong, righteous, good, bad, evil, wicked, justice, etc. Also see John 1/29b above and Acts 3/14 below.

154 John 9/35: "- - - Son of Man - - -". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

155 John 10/9: "I (Jesus*) am the gate (to Heaven*) - - -". A message impossible to misunderstand. But if it is true, Muhammad cannot be the gate to heaven - among other things because their teachings, moral codes, etc. are too different.

156 John 10/10: "The thief comes only to steal and destroy - - -". When one knows how Muhammad and his followers behaved after they came to Medina and started raiding, this sentence is thought provoking.

157 John 10/15+17+18b+38: "- - - Father - - -". Some of the places in NT where Jesus tells or indicates that Yahweh is his father.

157a John 10/18a: "This command I (Jesus*) received from my Father (Yahweh*)". Comments not necessary - it is Yahweh who is the source of power and it is Yahweh who makes the disitions, according to the Bible.

158 John 10/22: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

159 John 10/25a: "The Miracles I do in my Father's name - - -". There is little doubt about that the Bible means Jesus performed miracles, and many miracles. And the thought provoking fact here is that so many were witnesses to many of them, that it would be difficult for a writer to make up or change stories too much - too many witnesses had protested and destroyed the writer's credibility. For a comparison Muhammad and/or Allah were unable to make miracles and had to try to explain this fact away. Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

160 John 10/25b: "The Miracles I do in my Father's name - - -". Jesus clearly and several places in the Bible tells that he got his power from Yahweh, and that only Yahweh is the god.

161 John 10/25c: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father's name - - -". According to the Bible there is no doubt that Jesus really meant Yahweh was his father.

162 John 10/29a+36b+37+38: "My (Jesus'*) Father - - - is greater than all". Clearly: The father of Jesus according to Jesus is the highest of all: The one and only god Yahweh.

163 John 10/29b: "My (Jesus'*) Father - - - is greater than all". If Yahweh is the greatest, and the one and only god according to the Quran, what then is Allah (if he exists - there exists no proof, only the word of a man with a doubtful moral, believing in the use of dishonesty "if that give a better result").

164 John 10/30: "I (Jesus*) and my Father (Yahweh*) are one". This is one of the verses behind the dogma of the Trinity. But beware that no trinity is explicitly mentioned in the Bible. (The nearest is here where Jesus says Yahweh and he is one, and in 2. Cor. 3/17a where it is said "Now the Lord is the Spirit - - -".) It is a dogma decided on by humans by the end of the 4. century - and humans may be wrong. We who write this f.x. does not agree to what some means, namely that Jesus and the Holy Spirit just are other manifestations of Yahweh - they are separate beings, but of one purpose. If they exist.

We may add that in Nicaea they agreed on that Yahweh and Jesus were "of the same being" - the Holy Spirit later added into the expression "three 'persons', one being". The dogma got its present form late in the fourth century under "the Cappadocia Fathers" - Basil of Caesarea, Gregory of Nyssa, and Gregory of Naziansus. This dogma may be based - at least partly - on Jesus' words that Yahweh and he was one + om f.x. Paul in 2. Cor. 17+18 saying "- - - the Lord is the Spirit - - -". On the other hand it is very clear that Jesus said that Yahweh and he were one - though perhaps figuratively meant.

We also may add that the trinity formally is a central detail in Christian teaching, but only a detail, and only a formality. If it should turn out that the Trinity is wrong, it would reduce Jesus a little but not much, and it would have no effect on the basic points of the religion.

165 John 10/31a: "I (Jesus*) have shown you many miracles - - -". See John 10/25a, Luke 6/19, and Luke 7/16-17 above.

166 John 10/31b: "I (Jesus*) have shown you many miracles from the Father (Yahweh*) - - -". It is Yahweh who is the god and the source for the miracles and for power.

166a John 10/32: "I (Jesus*) have shown you (Jews) many miracles from the Fater". The miracles Jesus made according to the Bible, in reality were performed by Yahweh according to this, not really bu Jesus - the power behind the miracles was Yawhe's.

167 John 10/36a: "- - - the one (Jesus*) whom the Father (Yahweh*) set apart as his very own and sent into the world - - -". According to the Bible there is no doubt about what Jesus meant about these points.

168 John 10/36b: "I (Jesus*) am God's (Yahweh’s*) son". Same comment as under John 10/31a just above.

169 John 10/37: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father (Yahweh*). Comment like under John 10/31a just above.

170 John 11/25a: "He who believes in me (Jesus*) will live even though he dies - - -". He will live on in Paradise.

171 John 11/25b: "He who believes in me (Jesus*) will live even though he dies - - -". "He who believes", not "any Jew who believes". Jesus was for all - all humanity (in spite of Islam's never documented claim that Jesus just was for Jews, whereas Muhammad was for the world).

172 John 11/25c: "- - - whoever believes in me (Jesus*) will never die". He will live on in Paradise.

173 John 11/25d: "- - - whoever believes in me (Jesus*) will never die". "Whoever", not "any Jew". See John 11/25b above.

174 John 11/27a: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

175 John 11/27b: "- - - the son of God (Yahweh*) - - -". At least some believed in Jesus.

176 John 11/43: "- - - Jesus called out in a loud voice, 'Lazarus, come out!' The (4 days*) dead man came out - - -". See Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

177 John 11/47: "Here is this man (Jesus*) performing many miraculous signs". This was admitted by his worst enemies. For a comparison neither Allah nor Muhammad was able to make even one miracle - and as mentioned some places the only way to prove that a god is involved, is to produce something supernatural. Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

178 John 11/48: "If we (Jewish religious leaders*) let him (Jesus*) go on like this (making miracles*), everybody will believe in him - - -". This would be the natural human reaction for humans meeting a man making many and serious miracles. Compare this to Muhammad's claim that Allah did not make miracles because it would not make anyone believe anyhow, and weep - or laugh (it is unbelievable that anyone was and is able to believe in that explanation! It is so hopelessly illogical.) Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

179 John 12/1: "- - - Bethany, where Lazarus lived, whom Jesus had raised from the dead". See John 11/43 and Luke 6/19 and Luke 7/16-17 above.

180 John 12/10: "- - - on account of him (Lazarus and the miracle Jesus had performed by waking him up from the dead ones*) many of the Jews were going over to Jesus and putting their faith in him". Comments like under John 11/48 above. Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

181 John 12/15a: "- - - Daughter of Zion - - -". Zion was the name of the Temple Mountain, but was often used as a symbolic name for Jerusalem or for its inhabitants, and sometimes for all Judah/Israel and/or its Jews.

182 John 12/15b: "- - - see, your (the Jews'*) king is coming, seated on a donkey's colt". These words from Zec. 9/9 may well have been a foretelling by Zechariah about Jesus centuries earlier.

183 John 12/17: "Now the crowd that had been with him (Jesus*) when he called Lazarus from the tomb and raised him from the dead - - -". One more of the miracles Jesus performed where there were too many witnesses, so that it was not possible for the writer to make up or twist facts too much without being found out and lose credibility.

184 John 12/17-18: "Now the crowd that had been with him (Jesus*) when he called Lazarus from the tomb and raised him from the dead continued to spread the word (about the miracle*). Many people, because they had heard that he had given this miraculous sign, went out to meet him". Comments similar to under John 11/48 above.

185 John 12/23+34b: "- - - Son of Man - - -". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

186 John 12/26: "My (Jesus*) Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Muhammad claimed Jesus was just an ordinary man (if not Muhammad could not be the greatest of prophets). But Jesus according to the Bible said something very different.

187 John 12/26+27a+49b+50b: "Father - - -". Similar to John 12/26 just above, but not quite as strong a confirmation.

188 John 12/27b: "Then a voice came from heaven, 'I (Yahweh*) have glorified it, and will glorify it again'". If this is true, it is a strong proof for that Jesus was part of something supernatural.

189 John 12/34a: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

190 John 12/35: "You (the people around Jesus*) are going to have the light just a little while longer. Walk while you have the light, before the darkness overtakes you." Here "the light" is a synonym for Jesus. He also is foretelling his death.

191 John 12/37: "Even after Jesus had done all these miraculous signs in their presence, they (many or most of the Jews*) still would not believe in him". According to verse 40, the reason was a bit special - Yahweh for some reason or other did not want them to do so. But according to verse 42 many did believe, even among the leaders.

A point which may explain some of the disbelief, is that the Jews dreamed about a military powerful Messiah who could free them from the Romans and perhaps make Israel/Judah a powerful country again, like under David. Jesus was a totally different Messiah, and it was difficult for many to let their wishful dreams go.

192 John 12/46: "I (Jesus*) have come into the world as a light, so that no one who believes in me should stay in darkness". "No one", not only "no Jew". Jesus and his teaching were for everyone, not only for the Jews (in spite of Muslims' claims about the opposite).

193 John 12/49a: "For I (Jesus*) do not speak on my own accord, but the Father (Yahweh*) who sent me commanded me what to say and how to say it". There only is one god, Yahweh, and Yahweh is the one who directs everything.

194 John 12/50a: "So whatever I (Jesus*) say is just what the Father (Yahweh*) has told me to say". A parallel to 12/49a just above.

195 John 13/1a+3: "- - - the Father - - -". See John 12/26 above.

196 John 13/1b: "- - - love - - -". A word so central for Jesus that his religion often is called the religion of love. In the Quran it is a little used word, except in connection to near relatives, friends, or man/woman. One of the strong proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - and Jesus and Muhammad neither in the same religion - nor in the same line of prophets to say the least of it.

197 John 13/21: "- - - one of you (his disciples*) is going to betray me (Jesus*) - - -". One big difference between Jesus and Muhammad: Jesus was able to foretell - "see the unseen" - and make prophesies, and thus was a real prophet. If the Bible tells the truth, he also was able to make miracles - the proof for connection to something or someone supernatural. Muhammad was unable to do so (the stories you hear from Hadiths that Muhammad made some miracles, are made up stories - the Quran proves so. (They are not mentioned in the Quran, and you bet they had been mentioned if the tales were true - at least when asked why Allah made no miracles.) Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

198 John 13/26: "Jesus answered, 'It (the betrayer*) is the one to whom I will give this piece of bread when I have dipped it in the dish'. Then, dipping the piece of bread, he gave it to Judas Iscariot, son of Simon". Comments like for John 13/21 just above.

199 John 13/31: "- - - Son of Man - - -". A name for Jesus used sometimes in the NT - mostly it is Jesus who uses the name about himself.

200 John 13/32: "- - - the Son - - -". One of the many places in NT where Jesus indicates he is the son of Yahweh.

201 John 13/33: "- - - I (Jesus*) will be with you only a little longer". Comments like under John 13/21.

202 John 13/34-35: "A new command I (Jesus*) give you (his disciples - and may be humanity*): Love one another. As I have loved you, so you must love one another. By this all men will know you are my disciples, if you love one another". Similar comment like 13/1b above.

203 John 13/35: "By this all men will know that you (the disciples and perhaps humanity*) are my (Jesus'*) disciples, if you love one another". If Muhammad had said something similar, it is likely it would be something like: "By this all men will know that you are my followers, if you are ferocious warriors" - Muhammad was a robber baron in a war religion. (To claim that "Islam is the religion of peace", at best is a black joke. It simply is a widely spread al-Taqiyya, something anybody may have confirmed if they read the surahs from Medina.)

204 John 13/36: "Where I (Jesus*) am going, you (Peter*) cannot follow now, but you will follow later". Jesus was going to Heaven. Peter could not go there in this life, but he would go there in the next one.

205 John 14/2a: "In my (Jesus'*) Father's (Yahweh's*) house - - -". = Paradise.

206 John 14/2b: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father's (Yahweh's*) - - -". Muhammad might claim Jesus was just an ordinary man (if not Muhammad could not be the greatest of prophets). But Jesus according to the Bible said something very different. And even the Quran tells he was a prophet and a reliable person.

207 John 14/2c: "I (Jesus*) am going there (to Paradise*) - - -". Another foretelling about what was going to happen to Jesus. See John 13/21 above.

208 John 14/6a: "I (Jesus*) am the way and the truth and the life". For a comparison: Muhammad with his acceptance and use of dishonesty (al-Taqiyya - the lawful lie - Kitman - the lawful half-truth, deceit/betrayal, broken words/promises/oaths "if that gave a better result" (see f.x. verses 2/225a, 5/89a, 16/91b, and 66/2a in the Quran) ) definitely was and is not the personification of the truth. And as his "holy" book, the Quran, with all its mistakes, contradictions, etc. is not from any god, Muhammad also hardly is the way (to the next life).

209 John 14/6b: "No one comes to the Father (Yahweh*) except through me (Jesus*)". A clear message. If true, no Muslim will come to the god Yahweh. They just will have to hope the god Allah exists - after all he just was the Arab pagan god al-Lah, whom Muhammad shined up, accepted only his newest name,, and claimed he was the only god - - - and on top of all Muhammad was a man with doubtful moral who among other things accepted and the use of dishonesty if there were good reasons, and a man liking respect, power, and riches for bribes - and women. This even according to Islamic sources, though these facts are dressed up in nice words there.

210 John 14/6c+9+10c+11+12 "- - - the Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Some of the many places in NT where Jesus indicates that Yahweh is his father.

211 John 14/7+20+21+23+31b: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father - - -". Like John 14/6c just above, but stronger.

212 John 14/10a: "- - - that I (Jesus*) am in the Father (Yahweh*) and that the Father is in me - - -". There is mental contact between the two.

213 John 14/10b: "- - - it is the Father, living in me (Jesus*) who is doing this work". The mental contact with his father, the god Yahweh, decided what to say and do, according to this sentence. (Jesus frequently used parables and symbolisms or spoke figuratively.)

214 John 14/11a: "- - - that I (Jesus*) am in the Father (Yahweh*) and that the Father is in me - - -". There is mental contact or understanding between the two. (Like John 14/10b just above.)

215 John 14/11b: "- - - the evidence of the miracles - - -". Miracles are evidences for that something or someone supernatural were involved. Also see John 13/21 above. Muhammad never was able to produce any valid evidence of any kind. (He instead had to resort to claiming that f.x. natural phenomena were "signs" and "proofs", but these are completely invalid as signs or proofs, as long as it is not first proved that is really is Allah who was/is causing them. "A proof is one or more proved facts which can give only one conclusion". Any believer in any religion can make just the same claims on behalf of his/her god(s) like Muhammad did on behalf of Allah, and just as free of charge, as long as one can flee from all requests for real proofs, like Muhammad did.

216 John 14/13a: "- - - the Son - - -". One of the many places in NT where Jesus says or indicates that he is the son of Yahweh. If this is true, it "kills" Muhammad's never documented - like normal for him - claim that Jesus just was an ordinary man, and that he - Muhammad - was a greater prophet.

217 John 14/13b: "- - - the Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Some of the many places in NT where Jesus indicates that Yahweh is his father.

#####218 John 14/16a: "- - - I (Jesus*) will ask the Father (Yahweh*), and he will give you another Counselor - - -."

This is a special point according to Islam - special because it is foretelling Muhammad, they claim. This claim takes some explanation:

The dilemma here for Islam and its Muslims, is that the Quran claims Muhammad is foretold - clearly foretold - in both OT and NT. But he is mentioned neither in OT or NT. All the same they HAVE to find him - if not the Quran is wrong, and no omniscient god makes mistakes. Thus if they do not find Muhammad in both parts of the Bible, something is seriously wrong with Islam, because then the Quran cannot be from an omniscient god like they claim Allah is (though not even his existence is proved, not to mention his omniscience or omnipotence).

As mentioned just above, Islam has not one single real proof for neither the existence of Allah, and nor for Muhammad's contact with a god - Allah or anyone else. And a foretelling in the Bible would be if not a proof, then at least an indication for something. And Islam with its easygoing point of view on what is a proof if they like a claim, might call it a proof.

Even though the Quran tells it is easy to find Muhammad in the Bible, it is clear that this is not correct - even Islam has given in finding places where it is obvious he is mentioned. But as they HAVE to find him, they are searching for places where foretelling about him may be hidden. Here you have to remember:

Muhammad claimed that the Bible was falsified. He never produced any proof for this, only claims - it was his only way to explain away the differences between what he told the Bible said (he did not know the Bible, and much of what he told in reality was from apocryphal (made up stories), legends, folk tales, and fairy tales, not from the Bible). The places Muslims can use texts from the Bible, those texts never are falsified according to them. But texts indicating something is wrong in the Quran, always are falsified according to Islam and its Muslims - of course they never need to document anything, claiming things is all that is necessary for them.But both science and even more so Islam (not from free will) have thoroughly proved that the Bible is not falsified, by being unable to find one single provable falsification in any of the some 12ooo Biblical manuscripts or fragments older than 610 AD (before that there was no reason for falsifying Muhammad out of the Bible, because nobody knew about him), and the same for the some 32ooo other manuscripts or fragments with reference to or quotes from the Bible. Some mistakes are found, but not one single provable falsification.

Islam and its Muslims have been unable to explain how it could be possible to make identical falsifications + not making contradictions, when falsifying in tens of thousands manuscripts spread on not known places all over the then known world and wider - thousands of kilometers - in a time with little and slow communications.

Islam has been unable to explain how it was possible to make f.x. Jews and Christians and different sects agree on what to falsify and on the claimed new texts.

Islam has been unable to explain how it was possible to falsify that many manuscripts in so clever ways that it is impossible for modern science to discover anything.

Islam has been unable to explain why the parts of the Bible they like, as mentioned above never were falsified, whereas the parts they dislike always were falsified - and in identical ways all over the world.

##Islam has been unable to explain how such a big operation - thousands must have been involved to find and falsify each and every manuscript and fragment in Europe, Africa and Asia - without anybody learning about it and without even one owner protesting strongly enough for the surroundings to hear it, to having their copies of the Holy Scriptures changed.

Some Muslims claim Ezra rewrote and falsified OT, because the old scriptures had disappeared during the 70 years in Babylon. But only some Jews from Jerusalem and Judah were taken to Babylon - hundreds of copies of the old Jewish scriptures existed in Jewish communities and with rich Jews many other places. And also the ones who were permitted to stay in Judah - be sure they took care of their holy books. There simply was no reason for Ezra to rewrite the old books - and there also nowhere in old papers are said that he did so. And if he had falsified them, he would have been discovered as soon as his manuscripts were compared to older ones. Plus many Jews knew parts of the old books by heart - just like many Muslims know parts or all of the Quran by heart - and had quickly found the falsified points this even more so as the difference between the old scriptures and the Quran are so wide, that it is not a question of points). How was Ezra able to cheat them?

Muslims also claim that the Bible was falsified at the council in Nicaea in 325 AD. But the agenda for that meeting is well known, and nothing like that was on that agenda. Besides it is just as difficult to make bishops agree on falsifications in the Bible, as it is to make ayatollahs agree on falsifications in the Quran. And: What about the Jews and the sects who were not represented at that meeting? - did they obediently sit down afterwards and "correct" their Bibles and scriptures?

Muhammad's claim that the Bible is falsified, simply is wrong - made up claims presented by Muhammad because it was the only way he could "explain" away the differences between what he told the Bible said, and what it really said, and thus save his religion and his platform of power.

Then there are two Greek words which also must be explained before we can start on the main Muslim claim about Muhammad in NT - "Parakletos" and "Periklytos".

1):Parakletos (helper, counselor): This word in the Greek Gospel (the Gospels originally were written in Greek) after John, is what they use as an explanation. Muslims say it must be misspelled, because if you take another word;

2): “Periklytos” ("the glorious one" or "the praised one") which looks rather similar, and translate it to Aramaic, you get a word that in Arab can be interpreted as Ahmad, which is another version of the name Muhammad - they both may mean "the praised one". Very convincing (but remember that Arabs since prehistoric times have lived in cultures where conspiracy theories have been rife - perhaps because they never have had information they could rely on (because of al-Taqiyya, etc.?), and then they have made guesses and made up theories. The situations actually to a large degree is the same in many modern Muslim countries - and even more so in the ones which still are not much modern. Go to most of the Muslim countries and you can immerse yourself in conspiracy stories and theories). Also see verse 61/6e-f in "1000+ Mistakes in the Quran" -http://1000mistakes.com - and see the chapters about Muhammad in "1000+ Mistakes in the Quran". And: To claim that words may have been misunderstood is natural for Muslims, as the old Arab alphabet lacked the vowels, and one had to guess them. But not so in Greek.

To specify the problems in the old Arab alphabet: One claimed that the mistake came from the incomplete alphabet – old Hebrew like Arab only wrote the consonants, and then the reader had to put in – or guess (one of the problems with the original Quran) - the vowels and the signs used when writing. The two words have the same consonants: p-r-k-l-t-s. Add a-a-e-o and you get parakletos; add e-i-y-o and you get periklytos. But once again: NT was originally written in Greek, and Greek had a complete alphabet – this possibility for a mistake simply did not exist in Greek. The problem also did not exist in spoken Hebrew or Aramaic – only in written, and the first writers of course took the words - like spoken – from their own heads. (If they were fluent in Greek, which they seem to have been, they did not even have to translate in the head - if you are fluent in a language, you also think in that language when you use it.) Besides: The two words are Greek ones - the corresponding Hebrew ones would not have the same consonants, and thus translation from Hebrew or Aramaic cannot explain such claimed mistakes in Greek words. All these facts are well known to Muslim scholars, and all the same they tell these claims and arguments to their less educated congregations and listeners!! Wrong. And dishonest.

The next “explanation” one meets, is that the man who translated the NT from Hebrew (Aramaic) to Greek made a mistake and used the wrong word. But the NT never was translated – it was written originally in Greek, and the Greek alphabet was complete, so this source for misunderstanding also did not exist. Also this is a fact Muslim scholars know, but never mention - on the contrary we have seen them using the argument about mistake when the Gospels were (claimed) translated from Aramaic to Greek!! Honesty is not always a central thing to Muslim scholars and religious leaders.

Also you will meet the argument that Jesus could not mean the Holy Spirit, because he used another name; the Spirit of Truth. This is like saying that Allah could have just one name - but also the Holy Spirit had several names. We may here also point to John 15/26a (here): "When the Counselor comes - - - the Spirit of Truth who goes out from the Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Whatever Muhammad did, he did not go out from Yahweh - the teachings are too different, and too deeply different.

And there is Acts 1/4-5: "Do not (disciples*) leave Jerusalem, but wait for the gift (the Comforter/Holy Spirit*) my (Jesus*) Father (Yahweh*) promised, which you have heard me speak about. For John baptized with water, but in a few days you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit". This baptizing happened at Pentecost - and also these verses make a sorry joke out of Muslims claims that Jesus meant Muhammad when he spoke about the Comforter or the Spirit of Truth. F.x. "a few days" - Pentecost was 10 days (note that Jesus said "- - - in a few days - - -") after Jesus left his disciples the last time according to the Bible, whereas Muhammad lived more than 5 centuries later.

Also see John 15/26a, John 16/7a, John 16/13a+b+c, and Acts1/4-5 below.

But all the same the writer of the NT could have made such a mistake! Also wrong. For one thing there were around 10 different men who wrote the NT – and then all the ones who used the word, had to make just the same mistake. Just try to explain that! Besides there were lots of people that understood both those two languages – a lot of Jews, as Greek was the second language in the Roman Empire after Latin, and a number of the bureaucrats who were or had been stationed in Palestine, to mention two groups. They would quickly find the serious mistakes and whisper about correction or scream about mistakes – depending on whether they were friends or foes. Also this argument from Muslims is wrong.

TWO more facts: In the relevant old manuscripts there always and without known exception is written "parakletos" i this Gospel. And: In all the some 44ooo known relevant manuscripts or fragments older than 610 AD the word periklytos is not used one single time - not in this part of John and not anywhere else in the Bible.

And finally an extra point: Muslims who meet difficult information or questions, evade them by claiming that you cannot judge a text in the Quran from that text only - you have to judge it from the complete context or surah or book. Here - and in many other debates - they themselves not only take a single word out of its context, but also twist it a lot. "One rule for Loki, another for Thor" (Odin was the old Norse god of wisdom and the highest god, Loki was a demi-god living in the gods' realm, and Thor the god of war, and the implied meaning is that the mighty ones make one good rule for themselves, and another less good rule for others - like Muslims often practice on this and some other points).

Then we return to the text: "- - - I (Jesus*) will ask the Father (Yahweh*), and he will give you another Counselor - - -." As mentioned above, Islam claims that the word "counselor" (or wrongly translated "the glorious one") refers to Muhammad, and that the word "parakletos" either is a falsification or a misspelling - like normal without even trying to prove it. It "must" be so, and proofs are not necessary. Both are wrong - the correct word is "parakletos" and claims about other words must be proved.

But in addition to all the other wrongs here, let us include the relevant part of the context. Here is the text in John 14/16-18:

"- - - I (Jesus*) will ask the Father (Yahweh*), and he will give you (the disciples*) another Counselor to be with you forever - the Spirit of Truth. The world cannot accept him, because it neither sees him nor knows him. But you know him, for he lives with you and will be in you. I will not leave you as orphans; I will come to you".

We here have the following facts:

The correct word is "parakletos" - counselor - in spite of Islam's never documented claim.

The counselor is to be with the disciples forever - impossible for Muhammad, as he was not active until half a millennium after the disciples were all dead. Besides Muhammad on top of this did not live for ever.

The counselor was going to be the Spirit of Truth (one of the names for the Holy Spirit). Muhammad just was no spirit of truth, with his acceptance of dishonesty as a working tool - not only acceptance, but he practiced it himself. Al-Taqiyya (the lawful lie), Kitman (the lawful half-truth), deceit/betrayal (also practiced by Muhammad himself), broken even oaths (see f.x. verses 2/225a, 5/89a, 16/91b, and 66/2a in the Quran) - all this provably (from the Quran or/and Hadiths) accepted and/or practiced by Muhammad himself. To call Muhammad a spirit of truth, is to make a black - but for Muslims unintended - joke.

The world could not see the counselor - (the Holy Spirit normally was/is invisible). For his contemporary Muhammad was not difficult to see.

The world did not know the counselor. But Muhammad the world at least came to know.

"But you (the disciples*) know him (the counselor*) - - -". The disciples knew the Holy Spirit as it had visited Jesus. Not one of them ever came to know Muhammad - they all died centuries before he was even born.

The counselor would come to live with the disciples. And according to the Bible it did - whereas Muhammad definitely never did so, being born centuries too late.

The counselor was going to live in the disciples - and according to the Bible the Holy Spirit came into them some days later, at Pentecost. Muhammad definitely never lived in them - he as said f.x. was born half a millennium too late. The only thing Muhammad was into, was a number of women - by consent or force/rape.

"- - - in a few days you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit" (Acts 1/4-5). The counselor/helper should come in a few days. The Holy Spirit according to the Bible came 10 days later - Muhammad was born 500 years later. Any comments necessary?

We also may add verse 14/26: "But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom my (Jesus*) Father (Yahweh*) will send - - -", John 15/26a: "When the Counselor comes - - - the Spirit of Truth who goes out from the Father (Yahweh*) - - -", and John 16/13a: "But when he (the Councilor*), the Spirit of Truth, comes - - -". Here it is directly said that the counselor is the Holy Spirit. It is not possible to overlook these verses or their clear message, but all the same Muslims scholars tell their followers that here is a proof for Muhammad: Here he is in the Bible!

The counselor Jesus talked about and sent, was the Holy Spirit".

The only reason why Islam and its Muslims claim that the "parakletos" is Muhammad, is that they HAVE to find him in NT to save the religion, but he is not there, and the few other possibilities are even more unbelievable and wrong.

The really serious point here all the same is not that Islam and its Muslims tried - and try - to find Muhammad in the Bible. Not even the twisting and omission of information is the most serious point here. The really serious point is that the Bible is so clear on that the counselor impossible could be Muhammad, that it is not possible for someone reading these verses not to see that Muhammad is out of the question, or at least get second thoughts - the claim is so far out, that it is not even wrong, but rubbish. Lay Muslims are excused - they do not read the Bible and thus do not see the hopelessness in the claim. But the Muslim scholars do read also the Bible - if for nothing else then to find/check on points in the book they can use. And all the same they continue to tell their followers that Muhammad is in chapter 14 in the Gospel after John!! Perhaps verses John 14/26 and John 15/13 are most damning here - the message that the counselor = the Holy Spirit is very clear. They know they are lying when they tell their followers that the counselor is Muhammad.

Dishonesty. Al-Taqiyya (the lawful lie) - also see John 14/26a+b+c below.

And when they lie about this, what else do they lie about?

How much is a religion accepting and using and resting on dishonesty worth? - and how much of it is truth and how much lies?

A religion is too serious a thing to accept lies about and from - at least if it is true that there is an eternal life to come. Lies in case may make you end up in an invalid/false religion, and then on the wrong side in the perhaps next life.

219 John 14/17: "- - - the Spirit of Truth - - -". One of the names for the Holy Spirit.

220 John 14/18: "Before long, the world will not see me (Jesus*) any more - - -". A foretelling about what was going to happen Jesus shortly. Also see John 13/21 above.

221 John 14/21: "- - - love - - -". A word so central for Jesus that his religion often is called the religion of love. In the Quran it is a little used word, except in connection to near relatives, friends, or man/woman. One of the strong proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - and Jesus and Muhammad not in the same religion or line of prophets to say the least of it.

222 John 14/23: "- - - love - - -". See John 14/21 just above.

##223 John 14/26a: "But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom my (Jesus*) Father (Yahweh*) will send - - -". There is no doubt at all that according to the Bible, the counselor is the Holy Spirit. It is so clear, that it is not possible to overlook or misunderstand it - Muslim scholars are lying, and know they are lying each time they tell that the counselor in the Gospel after John, chapter 14, means Muhammad.

But what are they to do? If they do not find Muhammad in NT, the Quran is wrong and thus not from a god - and Islam then is a made up religion. Better to lie and pretend than to face that brutal alternative.

Also see John 14/16a above.

Muslims claim John 14/16-17 means Muhammad when it mentions the counselor, but NEVER mention that verse 14/26 directly tells that the counselor Yahweh would send, was the Holy Spirit. There is no higher religious scholar in Islam who does not know about verse John 14/26, but they never mention it - and claim with straight faces that the counselor/helper whom Jesus promised his disciples "in a few days", was Muhammad 500 years after their death. But then honesty is not always the main thing in Islam, but to make the religion look true. Also see John 14/16a above and 14/26b+c below.

#224 John 14/26b: "But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom my (Jesus*) Father (Yahweh*) will send in my name - - -". Something which is sure is that Muhammad was not sent in the name of Jesus - neither according to the Bible, nor to the Quran.

#225 John 14/26c: "But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom my (Jesus*) Father (Yahweh*) will send in my name, will teach you (Jesus' disciples*) all things and remind you of everything I have said to you". Muhammad lived 500+ years after the disciples of Jesus - he could tell or remind them of absolutely nothing. For one thing the Quran proves that he knew very little about what the Bible really said, but worse: The disciples were dead 5 centuries and more before Muhammad started preaching.

The claim that Muhammad is the Councilor Jesus promised his disciple, is not even a joke - and if it is, it is a pretty black one.

But what makes this story and this claim - that Muhammad was the councilor - really black, is that there is no higher Islamic scholar who did/does not know also this verse - when they are combing the Bible to find words and verses they will like to use, they also see this verse (and other verses saying similar things). But they tell their audience that Jesus was talking about Muhammad when he promised his disciples a helper - a counselor - and they never mention verses like John 14/26 or other verses which make the claim impossible.

Also see John 14/16a and 14/26a+b above.

Honesty is not advised in Islam when you are defending or promoting the religion, if an al-Taqiyya (a lie) gives a better result or is "necessary".

"Islam is the religion of truth!"????

226 John 14/28+31a: "- - - the Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Some of the many places in NT where Jesus indicates that Yahweh is his father.

227 John 14/31b: "- - - I (Jesus*) do exactly what my Father (Yahweh*) has commanded me". It is Yahweh - the only god according to the Bible - who rules. Jesus is an underling and a co-worker, but only Yahweh is the one who gives the orders - who is the supreme ruler.

228 John 15/1: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father (Yahweh*) - - -". One of the many places in NT where Jesus clearly and directly tells that Yahweh is his father.

229 John 15/6: "If anyone does not remain in me (Jesus*)(= believe in Jesus and his teaching*), he is like a branch that is thrown away and withers (here religiously meant*); such branches are picked up, thrown into the fire and burned". Muhammad did not believe in Jesus' teaching.

230 John 15/9+10b+12+13: "- - - love - - -". See John 14/21 above.

230a John 15/10a: "- - - just as I (Jesus*) have obeyed my Father (Yahweh*) - - -". It is Yahweh who has the command. Jesus is a helper and perhaps second in command, but it is Yahweh who is the god.

231 John 15/12: "My (Jesus'*) command is this: Love each others as I have loved you". Points like this are the reason why Jesus' religion often is called "the religion of love". (Though also this religion has been disused for acts not based on love. But there is a difference between disusing a religion to do bad things, and to obey a religion to do bad things. It is not unlikely Muhammad's similar order had been: "Be good and ferocious warriors for Allah and for me".)

232 John 15/22+24: "- - - sin - - -". Because there are - sometimes great - differences between f.x. the moral codes of the Bible and the Quran, there often are - sometimes great - differences between what is a sin in the Bible and in the Quran. Similar goes for a number of other words and expressions - f.x. right, wrong, righteous, good, bad, evil, wicked, justice, etc. Also see John 1/29b above and Acts 3/14 below.

###233 John 15/26a: "When the Counselor comes, whom I (Jesus*) will send to you (Jesus' disciples*) - - -". Here it is directly said that "the counselor" Jesus would send, he would sent to his disciples. All the same Islam and its scholars tell their followers that When Jesus talked about sending his disciples a helper - a counselor - he meant Muhammad, living half a millennium after the last of the disciples was dead. (Not to mention that in spite of that Jesus said this counselor was a spirit of truth, Islam still claims he meant Muhammad, in spite of Muhammad's acceptance and use of dishonesty and lies - al Taqiyya (the lawful lie), Kitman (the lawful half-truth), deception/betrayal, and even breaking words/promises/oaths (f.x. 2/225a, 5/89a, 16/91b, 66/2a) - as working tools.)

But the really dark spot here: There is no chance that the Islamic scholars did not see this when they combed - and comb - the Bible to find points they want to use in their argumentation. The facts simply are too easy to see (this also goes for Muhammad's acceptance and use of dishonesty). But all the same they tell their followers that their cherry-picked and twisted quotes not only quoted out of the context, but contradicting the context, are about Muhammad.

"The religion of truth!"

But we remind you that according to the rules for al-Taqiyya and Kitman, Hilah, etc. dishonesty is not only accepted, but advocated to use "if necessary" to defend or forward Islam. And as the Quran tells that Muhammad is told about both in OT and NT, they HAVE to find him, true or not true - if not there are serious mistakes in the Quran, and the en the book cannot be from a god. And then it is better to use dishonesty than facing the true facts.

In a religion there only is one point which really counts: Is it a true religion? - if not the followers are sure to have a nasty surprise if there is a next life. How true is a religion which among other black facts - f.x. a "holy" book not connected to a god, the only basis a man of doubtful moral, but much to gain from making people believe in his new religion and platform of power - accepts and uses and even advises the use of dishonesty "if necessary" as a means to make people believe?

Also see John 14/16a above and John 16/7a, John 16/13a+b+c and Acts 1/4-5 below.

234 John 15/26b: "When the Counselor comes - - - the Spirit of Truth who goes out from the Father (Yahweh*) - - -". There is no doubt here that "the Councilor" = the Holy Spirit. Also see John 14/16a above and John 16/7 below.

Also this verse the Muslim scholars know and knew - it is impossible not to see it when they search for points they can - and could - use.

235 John 15/26c: "- - - the Father - - -". Rather similar to John 15/1 above.

236 John 16/2: "- - - a time is coming when anyone who kills you will think he is offering a service to God (Yahweh*)". There surely have been times, and still are places or groups where killing of non-Muslims is reckoned to be a service to Allah - worldwide the terrorists and some others prove this monthly or weekly or at times even daily.

237 John 16/3+10+15+17: "- - - the Father - - -". Rather similar to John 15/1 above.

238 John 16/7a: "Unless I (Jesus*) go away, the Counselor will not come to you (Jesus' disciples*); but if I go, I will send him to you". There is no doubt whatsoever for that the Counselor was meant for the disciples. Then to claim that Muhammad - who lived 500+ years later - was that counselor, is not even nonsense.

A parallel to f.x. John 14/16a and John 15/26a above and John 16/13a+b+c and Acts 1/4-5 below.

239 John 16/7b: "- - - the Counselor - - -". See John 14/16a above.

240 John 16/8a: "- - - sin - - -". Because there are - sometimes great - differences between f.x. the moral codes of the Bible and the Quran, there often are - sometimes great - differences between what is a sin in the Bible and in the Quran. Similar goes for a number of other words and expressions - f.x. right, wrong, righteous, good, bad, evil, wicked, justice, etc. Also see Luke John 1/29b above.

241 John 16/8b: "- - - righteousness - - -". There are some human faculties the Bible values high, but which in the Quran may mean something different in Islam because of - sometimes big - differences in f.x. moral and/or ethical codes, laws, etc. F.x.:

Justice: See the unjust parts of the sharia laws - some only unjust, some even discriminating like in the old South Africa or the old South States of the USA - and the immoral parts of the Quran's moral code. This sentence was and still is relevant for the Quran.

Kindness: A very central topic in the Bible, and especially in NT. Kindness also is part of the Quran, but mainly towards Muslims and a few special groups.

Righteous/righteousness: The Bible values righteousness much. A number of the moral and ethical rules in the Quran, plus some of the Sharia laws are not righteous (even though Muslims are so used to them that many of them believe they are) - another proof for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god. (As for moral, ethical, and judicial codes in the Quran: Compare it to "do against others like you want others do against you", and you will see which of them which are moral, etc. ones and which not.

Truthful: Allah according to the Quran and to Hadiths accepts the use of dishonesty and even betrayal and broken words/promises/oaths (2/225a, 5/89a, 16/91b, 66/2a). It is very clear from the involved moral codes here that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god, not unless he is strongly schizophrenic.

Sin: What is sin and what is not may be totally different in the Bible, compared to in the Quran - especially clear if you compare the Quran with NT. A most strong proof for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god.

Good and bad: Also these two words may have very different meanings in the Bible - and especially clearly so in NT - compared with in the Quran, as the moral codes in many cases are from different to extremely different.

###Each and every of these often fundamental differences are at least 100% proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - and Jesus and Muhammad not even distantly related as prophets (in addition to that Muhammad was no real prophet as he was unable to make prophesies - unable "to see the unseen"), and not representing the same religion (in spite of Islam's claim - like always without any proof - that Jesus was a good and believing Muslim).

As a contrast to especially NT some of the sharia laws and some of the some 90 verses in the Quran which directly talk about laws definitely are not righteous, neither compared to the rules for ethics, moral, or righteousness in normal cultures, nor to "do against others like you want others do against you". Especially compare to NT, some of the differences are dramatic, and one of the at least 100% proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - and Muhammad not in the line of prophets where Jesus belongs according to this - nor was he in the same religion as Jesus.

242 John 16/13a: "But when he (the Councilor*), the Spirit of Truth, comes - - -". See John 14/16a, John 15/26s, and John 16/7 above, and John 16/13b+c and Acts 1/1-4 below - there is no doubt here that "the Councilor" = the Holy Spirit.

243 John 16/13b: "But when he (the Councilor*), the Spirit of Truth, comes, he will guide you (the disciples*) into all truth". As for Islam's claim that the councilor = Muhammad, for one thing Muhammad could not guide the disciples in any way at all, as he was born five centuries too late, and for another thing far from all of Muhammad's guiding were into the truth.

244 John 16/13c: "- - - and he (the Councilor/Spirit of Truth*) comes he will tell you (the disciples*) what is yet to come". One more proof for that Muhammad was not the Counselor: Muhammad was unable to "see the unseen" even according to the Quran = he was unable to see - and tell - what was yet to come.

Besides - how could Muhammad tell the disciples of Jesus anything at all, when they all were dead some 500 years before he started his religious work? Also remember Jesus promised that the Counselor/helper should come "in a few days" - 500 years are a lot of days.

245 John 16/15: "- - - the Spirit - - -". One of the several names for the Holy Spirit.

246 John 16/16+17a: "In a little while you (his disciples*) will see me (Jesus*) no more, and then after a little while you will see me". In a short time Jesus was going to disappear from Earth, but when they died they would meet him again in Heaven - or perhaps Jesus referred to his meeting them after his resurrection, but before his going up to Heaven.

247 John 16/17b+26+27+28: "- - - the Father - - -". Quite similar to John 16/23 just below.

248 John 16/23+25+32: "- - - my (Jesus'*) Father (Yahweh*) - - -". One of the many places in NT where Jesus clearly and directly tells that Yahweh is his father - directly contradicting the Quran and Muhammad.

249 John 16/27: "- - - love - - -". See John 14/21 above.

250 John17/1a+5+11+21+24+25:"Father (Yahweh*) - - -". Here Jesus is speaking directly to Yahweh - not much use in pretending Yahweh was his father in such a situation, as both would know what the truth was. If these quotes are correct, Jesus did not pretend. In addition see John 16/23 above.

251 John 17/1b: "- - - your (Yahweh's*) Son (Jesus*) - - -". Similar comment like under John 17/1a just above.

252 John 17/3a: "- - - you (Yahweh*), the only true God - - -". What then is Allah in case?

253 John 17/3b: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

254 John 17/7: "Now they (his disciples*) know that everything you (Yahweh*) have given me (Jesus*), comes from you". Yahweh is the source - the god.

255 John 17/12: "- - - the one doomed to destruction - - -". Judas Iscariot. (He killed himself when he saw the results of his betrayal - - - but Muslims claim he later wrote a gospel. Not bad for a dead man. (Another point is that science tells that this claimed "gospel" is much younger.)

256 John 17/23+24a+26: "- - - loved - - - love - - -". See John 14/21 above.

257 John 17/24b: "- - - you (Yahweh*) loved me (Jesus*) before the creation of the world". If it is true Jesus existed before the creation of the world (some 4.567 billion years ago), there is no hope for Muhammad's never documented claim that Jesus just was an ordinary man.

258 John 17/25a: "Righteous - - -". See John 16/8b above.

259 John 17/25b: "- - - they (the disciples of Jesus*) know that you (Yahweh*) have sent me". Jesus is the co-worker and underling, Yahweh is the ruler - there only is one god according to the Bible, and Jesus got his "jobs" and his power from him (still according to the Bible.

260 John 18/11: "- - - the Father - - -". Quite similar to John 16/23 above.

261 John |8/12: "None has been lost - - -". Jesus during his life on Earth lost none of his followers (except the traitor Judas/Jude Iskariot). How many did Muhammad loose during his life? (That Jesus lost none, may also be the fulfillment of the foretelling in John 6/39).

262 John 18/37: "- - - for this I (Jesus*) came into the world, to testify to the truth". For a comparison Muhammad accepted and himself used dishonesty.

263 John 19/11: "- - - sin". See John 1/19b above.

264 John 19/18: "Here (on Golgotha*) they (the soldiers*) crucified him (Jesus*) - - -". Plain words - and because of a lot of circumstances pointed to other places in this book, Islam's claim - like always for Islam when it comes to central points not proved - that Jesus was not killed, but somebody else was executed instead, is so highly unlikely, that it is not worthy any more words. Islam will for once have to bring proofs if they want us to believe it.

#####But please tell us where the authorities quickly were able to find a look-alike to Jesus willing to or possible to force to being crucified instead of Jesus, and who was willing to and able to talk like Jesus on the cross instead of screaming out in his pain that he was a wrong victim who should be released? Islam's "explanation" here is naive far beyond anything credible.

265 John 19/24: "They divided my garments among them, and cast lots for mu clothing". These words originally from the psalms (Ps. 22/18) tells exactly what happened to Jesus' cloths (John 19/23-24). A foretelling about Jesus and his mission?

266 John 19/25: "Near the cross of Jesus stood his mother, his mother's sister, Mary the wife of Clopas, and Mary Magdalene". Other places in NT says they stood at some distance, but the next two verses shows that the distance was not greater than Jesus could speak to them.

267 John 19/26-27: Jesus on the cross speaks to his mother and to one of his disciples (likely John). If this is true, there is no chance neither in Hell, nor in Heaven that the Quran's claim that Jesus was not crucified and killed, nor that Islam's claim that someone else was executed in his place, may be true. This on top of the other points which make these never documented claims impossible.

###268 John 19/28: "- - - knowing that all now was completed - - -". F.x. Matt. 5/18 says that the Jesus told laws would not be changed "until everything is accomplished". Here everything is completed - laws could be changed.

269 John 19/30a: "It is finished". A parallel to John 19/28 just above.

270 John 19/30b: "With that, he bowed his head and gave up his spirit (died*)". Comments similar to John 19/26-27 above.

271 John 19/31a: "- - - Sabbath - - -". One of the proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god. See Eze. 20/12, Eze. 20/20a, 22/26, and Eze. 23/38 above.

272 John 19/31b: "- - - to have the legs broken - - -". Hanging on a cross from your arms you are unable to breath - you have to lift your body some by means of your legs. If your legs are broken, this is impossible, and you suffocate.

273 John 19/33: "- - - they (the soldiers*) did not break his (Jesus*) legs (because he already was dead*)". In the psalms there is a verse (Ps. 34/19-20) like this: "A righteous man has many troubles, but the Lord (Yahweh*) delivers him from them all, he (Yahweh*) protects all his (the man's*) bones, not one of them will be broken". A coincidence?

274 John 19/36: "Not one of his bones will be broken". A parallel to John 19/33 just above.

275 John 20/2-9: Comment like John 20/2a+b below.

276 John 20/2a: "- - - she (Mary Magdalene*) came running to Simon Peter and the other disciple, the one Jesus loved (likely John*) and said, "They have taken the Lord (Jesus*) out of the tomb, and we do not know where they have put him!" She had not done or said this unless she knew it was Jesus who was dead and was lying in the tomb - yes, she had not even gone to the tomb in the early morning (John 20/1) if she did not know this. If this verse is true, there is no chance that Muhammad's never documented claim that Jesus was not killed, or Islam's very illogical and never documented claim that someone else was killed instead, is true.

277 John 20/2b: "- - - the one (disciple*) Jesus loved - - -". It is believed this is John, the writer of this gospel. John thus really knew what he was writing about. The chance for that Muhammad's never proved claim that Jesus did not die, is not even infinitesimal - John had not reacted like he did, unless he knew - knew - Jesus was the dead one.

278 John 20/3-4: "So Peter and the other disciple started for the tomb. Both were running - - -". Comment like under John 20/2 just above.

279 John 20/9: "(They (the two disciples*) did not understand from Scriptures that Jesus had to rise from the dead.)" That Jesus rose from the dead is strongly contradicting Muhammad's words that Jesus did not die (but Muhammad had to claim this if he wanted people believe in his claim that he himself was the greatest ever of prophets - if Jesus was killed and then rose from the dead, he obviously was something or someone very special.

280 John 20/10: "- - - Mary (Magdalene*) stood outside the tomb crying." Comments similar to under John 20/2 above. And we may add: She had not been crying unless she really believed Jesus was the dead one. This even more so as real crying is an act difficult to fake.

281 John 20/12: "- - - two angels in white, seated where Jesus' body had been - - -". If angels came to give a message about Jesus, Jesus definitely was something or someone very special.

282 John 20/13a: "Woman, why are you crying?". Mary Magdalene had not been crying if she had not known it was Jesus who was dead and now had disappeared. Also see John 20/2 above.

283 John 20/13b: "They have taken my (Mary Magdalene's*) Lord (Jesus*) away - - -". Comment like under John 20/2 above.

284 John 20/14: "- - - she (Mary Magdalene*) turned around and saw Jesus standing there - - -". For this to be possible, Jesus had had to be resurrected - like said many places in the Bible. A stark contradiction to Muhammad's never proved claims in case.

285 John 20/15: "Sir, if you have carried him (Jesus*) away, tell me (Mary Magdalene*) where you have put him, and I will get him". Comments like under John 20/2 above.

286 John 20/16: "She (Mary Magdalene*) turned toward him (Jesus*) and cried out in Aramaic, 'Rabboni!' (which means Teacher)". She recognized him, which means Jesus was alive (if not he could not stand there).

287 John 20/17: "Jesus said - - -". Jesus could say nothing unless he was alive - resurrected according to the Bible.

288 John 20/18: "Mary Magdalene went to the disciples with the news: 'I have seen the Lord (Jesus*). And she told them that he had said these things to her". Impossible unless Jesus was alive - resurrected according to the Bible.

289 John 20/19a: "- - - with doors locked for fear of the Jews, Jesus came and stood among them (his disciples*) - - -". One more miracle performed by Jesus. Also see John 13/21 above.

290 John 20/19b: "- - - Jesus came and stood among them (the disciples*) and said, 'Peace be with you'". Impossible if Jesus was not alive - resurrected according to the Bible. Also remember that this likely is written by the disciple John, and that he thus really knew what he was writing about.

291 John 20/23: "- - - sins - - -". Because there are - sometimes great - differences between f.x. the moral codes of the Bible and the Quran, there often are - sometimes great - differences between what is a sin in the Bible and in the Quran. Similar goes for a number of other words and expressions - f.x. right, wrong, righteous, good, bad, evil, wicked, justice, etc. Also see Luke 15/7 above and Acts 3/14 below..

292 John 20/25: "Unless I (Thomas*) see the nail marks in his (Jesus'*) hands and put my finger where the nails were, and put my hand into his side (where the spear had penetrated Jesus*), I will not believe it". Thomas had not said this unless he really was sure Jesus was crucified and then dead. To repeat it: The chance for that Muhammad's and the Quran's never proved claim that Jesus was not crucified and killed is correct, is less than infinitesimal - his disciples were among the ones who really knew what had happened. His disappearance from the grave perhaps had been possible to arrange, but not the claimed not-crucifixion - this in spite of Muhammad’s/the Quran's here pretty lame claims and in spite of Islam's even more lame "explanations" for what they claim happened. (And the word "lame" is no overstatement here.)

293 John 20/26: "Though the doors were locked, Jesus came and stood among them (his disciples*) and said - - -". Comments like under John 20/19a + 19b.

294 John 20/30: "Jesus did many other miraculous signs in the presence of his disciples, which are not recorded in this book". This means Jesus made many more miracles than the ones told about. Also see Acts 9/34-35 below, Mark 1/25 above, and the rather similar Matt. 8/2-3 above.

295 John 20/31a: "- - - Christ - - -". See John 1/17 and John 1/41 above.

296 John 20/31b: "- - - (Jesus*) the Son of God (Yahweh*) - - -". It is very clear that the John who wrote this gospel, believed in Jesus and his story. (And if Jesus really is the son of Yahweh, there is not the slightest doubt about who was the greatest of Jesus and Muhammad.)

297 John 21/1: "Afterwards Jesus appeared again to his disciples, by the sea of Tiberias". If the Bible tells the truth, there is no doubt Jesus was alive again - resurrected according to the Bible.

298 John 21/6: "When they did, they were unable to haul the net in because of the large number of fish". One more of Jesus' miracles - also see John 13/21 above.

299 John 21/24: "This is the disciple who testifies to these things, and who wrote them down". This sentence tells that the John who wrote this Gospel, was the disciple John. If this is correct, and there is no reason to doubt it, he had much and reliable first hand information

Sub-total: 299 + 522 = 821 remarks.

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This work was uploaded with assistance from M. A. Khan, the author of Islamic Jihad: A Legacy of Forced Conversion, Imperialism and Slavery, and the editor of islam-watch.org website.