1000+ Claims in the Quran - Invalid Unless Proven, Surah 20

 

Surah 20: Ta Ha

(Mecca, 614-615 AD)

(A Surah name of unclear meaning. It may be of the mysterious letters which starts many of the surahs - see 11/1a above. Or it may mean "O man!" in two Arab dialects, but this in case has no relevance to the text. Clear text in the Quran like so often.)

 

001  "In the name of Allah, Most Gracious, Most Merciful". Please read the surahs from Medina, the immoral parts of the Muslim moral code, the unjust/immoral parts of sharia, and the Quran's rules for lying, thieving/looting, enslaving, raids and wars, plus the rules for treatment of girls and women - free and captives - and see if you agree. Always when there is a distance between words and corresponding demands and deeds, we personally believe in the demands and deeds. Glorious words are cheap, demands and deeds are reliable. Glorifying words and claims are too cheap for anyone to use and disuse - when you read, judge from realities, not from propaganda.

002 20/2a: “We (Allah*) have not sent down the Quran - - - to be (an occasion) for - - - distress - - -“. The main fact is that Allah (if he exists) did not send it down at all – no omniscient god makes that many and that obvious mistakes, contradictions, etc.

003 20/2b: “We (Allah*) have not sent down the Quran to thee (Muhammad*) to be (an occasion) for thy distress - - -“. The main question here is: Was anything sent down to Muhammad at all? All the errors make involvement by a god impossible and a devil unlikely - even a devil would not use means so easy to look through (if not the god forced him in order to give the humans a better chance to look through the trap). If nothing supernatural was involved, there remains mental illness (TLE - Temporal Lobe Epilepsy, which is the suspicion of modern medical science), or accomplices or a cold manipulation from Muhammad himself - he had plenty of motifs in case: Respect, power, riches for bribes for more power - and women.

004 20/3a: "(The Quran is meant*) only as an admonition to those who fear (Allah) - - -". Look at the Islamic societies and look at Islamic history - has the Quran been an admonition? – and especially if the Quran is a made up book like it seems to be with all its mistaken facts, etc. which make it impossible it is from any god.

005 20/4a: (The Quran is*) “A revelation from Him (Allah*) - - -”. The unanswered question is: Would an omniscient god send down a book with so many mistakes? - not to mention if he would have it as a not perfect, but all the same deeply respected and revered Mother Book in his perfect home above Paradise? There is an answer: Either it is wrong that Allah sent it down, or it is wrong that Allah is omniscient - if he exists.

006 20/4b: (The Quran is*) “A revelation from Him (Allah*) Who created the earth and the heavens (plural and wrong*) of high”. This creation is often claimed in the Quran, but never documented anywhere - like in many other religions. Also see 11/7a above.

007 20/5b: "(Allah) Most Gracious is firmly established on the throne (of authority)". Frequently claimed like this or in other ways, but never one single valid proof for it - only Muhammad's never documented words. And even Islam describes Muhammad as a doubtful character if you look away from all the glorious propaganda words, and judge from what he in reality demanded and did - words are cheap, deeds are reliable.

008 20/5c: "(Allah) Most Gracious is firmly established on the throne (of authority)". Contradicted by the Bible which says that there sits Yahweh, not Allah. Also see 67/9c below - a strong one. But of course it is ok for Islam to prove - prove - the Bible wrong and the Quran right. But as we say: Prove, not just loose claims and as loose and invalid words like the Quran always use instead of proofs.

009 20/6a: "To Him (Allah*) belongs all what is in the heavens (plural and wrong*) and on earth - - -". Often claimed, never proved. See 20/5b just above.

010 20/7b: "- - - He (Allah*) knoweth what is secret and what is yet more hidden". So take care and be good and be obedient. A reminder and a warning - there are many similar, and we mention some of them. But if he knows - and predestines - everything, why then does he have to test even his followers?! Also see 2/233h above.

011 20/8a: "There is no god but He (Allah*)!" See 2/255a and 6/106b above,

012 20/8b: "To Him (Allah*) belong the Most Beautiful Names." Please read the Medina surahs, the Quran's moral code, and the most unjust sharia laws and afterwards think it over if f.x. names like "Most Merciful" or "Most Forgiving" really belongs to him. (Just to mention it: According to the Quran, Allah has 99 beautiful names - by co-incidence not one of them is Yahweh, even though the Quran wrongly claims Yahweh and Allah are the same god. But maybe it is no co-incidence that that name is missing?).

013 20/9a: "Has the story of Moses reached thee (people*)?" The story of Moses in the Quran is a lot different from the one in the Bible - especially the details, not to mention the story concerning the wise man al-Khidr, which does not exist in the Bible at all. From where did Muhammad get the additional information (not from a god, as too much is wrong in the Quran for a god to have been involved).

014 20/12c: "- - - thou (Moses*) art in the sacred valley of Tuwa". This may or may not be contradicting the Bible. The Bible says it happened near the mountain of Horeb, but there may have been a valley named Tuwa there. But from where did Muhammad get this information? - the name is not mentioned in the Bible. As no god ever was involved in a book so full of mistakes like the Quran, there remains: 1) Dark forces. 2) A mental illness like f.x. TLE (Temporal Lobe Epilepsy) like modern medical science suspect. 3) Apocryphal (made up) scriptures, legends and fairy tales - Muhammad/the Quran often used such "sources". 4) Fantasy.

015 20/14c "- - - there is no god but I (Allah*) - - -". See 2/255a and 6/106b above.

016 20/14d: "- - - regular prayers - - -". One of the 100+% proofs for that Yahweh and Allah were not the same god: For Allah the 5 prayers a day were so essential that he made them one of the pillars of Islam. Yahweh did not even bother to mention such a formality (not once in the entire Bible) - pray when there was a reason or a need or a wish to do so.

017 20/15d: "- - - every soul to receive its reward by the measure of its Endeavour". But in case from which god - if there is a god? There is no reliable information about Allah, except that before Muhammad he was the pagan main god in Arabia, before that he was the moon god al-Ilah at least in south Arabia, and before that a main god named Il further east. Because of all the errors in the Quran and because of the very doubtful ethics and moral of the one (Muhammad) dictating it, the reliability of the claims also about Allah in that book, is far below what any scientist or reliable judge will accept. Something to think over when planning for a perhaps next life??

018 20/15e: "- - - every soul to receive its reward by the measure of its Endeavour". In the Quran a main question for the claimed next life is the balance of your good contra bad deeds - and the best of deeds was to go to war for Muhammad (Allah?) and destroy, steal, take captives for extortion or slaves, etc., and later also to force Islam on them, and Iblis take the abrogated flagship 2/256: "Let there be no compulsion in religion". In especially NT the main way to salvation is the love and forgiving from Yahweh, as much as good deeds, though they count. A very different religion = a very different god.

019 20/22b: "- - - another Sign - - -". This is indicated to be a sign for Allah. Even if we omit the fact that the Bible disagree and says it was a sign from Yahweh, there remains the other fact; that there never - never - was one single unmistakable sign (Quran-speak for proof for Allah) from or for Allah. For Yahweh plenty, if the old books tell the truth, but never anything for or from Allah. (And remember: In spite of Muhammad's claims the two gods were not the same one - their teachings fundamentally were too different.)

##020 20/39: In this verse the mother of Moses is ordered by the god to set her baby adrift on the Nile - no reason given. You find the reason in the Bible (2. Mos. 1/22). The vagueness on far too many details is one of the reasons why the Quran evaluated as literature is "not god" - the same goes for the fact that far too many places where details are given, they only are claims, even though they are referred to like being facts. Pretending that claims are facts is not good literature, except sometimes in fiction.

021 20/40b: "- - - tried - - -". Why does an omniscient, predestining god need to test anyone? - if it then was not Muhammad who heeded "proof" for that testing was normal.

022 20/44: "- - - he (Ramses II*) may take a warning or fear (Allah*)". There is not one sign of any kind in any kind of science indicating that the claimed god Allah was known in Egypt around 1235 BC, and thus no reason to believe Ramses II would fear him. (There exists not one real indication anywhere for that a god like Allah was known anywhere in the world until 610 AD, when Muhammad started his preaching.)

023 20/47f: "And peace to all who follow guidance (here indicated Allah/Islam)!" For one thing every indication tells that Islam was totally unknown at that time - in Egypt and everywhere else. For another the Bible says that the involved god was Yahweh, not Allah.

024 20/48b: "Verily it has been revealed to us (Moses and Aaron*) that the Penalty (awaits) those who reject (guidance (= Islam*)) and turn away". In the Bible there is no religious debate - only the demand "let my people go!".

025 20/49c: "Who then, O Moses, is the Lord of you two (Moses and Aaron*)?". The Jews had been in Egypt 430 years according to the Bible. Islam claims 100 - 300 years. (The Quran says that the Pharaoh drowned. We know that Ramses II did not drown, and Islam, therefore, needs to find a pharaoh who can have drowned, and therefore tries to move it backwards to more unknown pharaohs who can have died that way - if not something is seriously wrong with the Quran, as a god does not make mistakes in his holy book. (Also the Bible says he drowned, but the Bible is written by humans, and humans can make mistakes - f.x. mistaken one of Ramses II's generals or many (67?) sons for the pharaoh.)) After even 100 years the ruling pharaoh would know who was the god of a big group in his country like the Jews. The question is not logical. Besides: After only 100 years the Jews could not have multiplied from less than 100 persons to 600ooo men + women and children like the Bible tells. In 430 years it at least theoretically is possible - a geometric curve is explosive.

026 20/50-54: A religious debate. No such debate is reported in the Bible - there the thing simply was the demand to let the Jews go.

027 20/51c: "What then is the condition of previous generations?" Ramses II asks if Moses means earlier Egyptians - polytheists - now were in Heaven or Hell. Such a debate is not mentioned in the Bible. From where did Muhammad get these details? As the Quran is not from a god, the alternatives are: From dark forces. From old tales. From his possible illness (TLE - Temporal Lobe Epilepsy). From a scheming brain.

028 20/52a: "- - - duly recorded - - -". Why does a predestining and omniscient god need records? Also see 20/52b just below.

029 20/52b: "- - - (Allah*) never errs, nor forgets - - -". Why then does he have to test people? And why does he need records?

AND HOW CAN ALL THE ERRORS IN THE QURAN BE EXPLAINED IF THIS IS CORRECT? (Only two possibilities: To lie/"explain" away/Allah not omniscient, or Allah is not the one behind the book.)

030 20/53c: "With it (water*) have We (Allah*) produced pairs of diverse plants - - -". At least mostly wrong, as most plants do not exist in pairs - "male" and "female" parts are at the same plant, more often in the same flower. There exist some which comes in pair though. But it may seem like Muhammad did not know, because he say a similar thing at least one more place in the Quran, and there more definitely ("fruits in pairs"). Any god had known this. Who made the Quran?

Besides: Plants are not made from water - water only is a part of them. Actually plant are made more from air (CO2) than from water.

031 20/55a: “From the (earth) did We (Allah*) create you (man*) - - -.” But: This is contradicted by 6/2, 7/12, 17/61, 32/7, 38/71, and 38/76 that tell man/Adam was made from clay, 15/26, 15/26, and 15/33 that tell man/Adam was made from sounding clay, 55/14 that tells man/Adam was made from ringing clay, 37/11 that tells man/Adam was made from sticky clay, 23/12, that tell man/Adam was made from essence of clay, 15/26, 15/28, and 15/33 that tell man/Adam was made from mud, 3/59, 22/5, 35/11, 40/67, that tell man/Adam was made from dust, 96/2 that tells man/Adam was made from a clot of congealed blood, 16/4, 75/37, 76/2, 80/19, that tell man/Adam was made from semen (without explaining from where the semen came), 21/30, 24/45, and 25/54 that tell man/Adam was made from water (NB! NB! Not in water, but from water!), 70/39 that tells man/Adam was made from “base material”. (Also see verse 6/2 in the book about the 1000+ mistakes in the Quran.) (Strictly reckoned this contradicts 30 other verses. But minimum 11 contradictions.)

032 20/55c "From it (earth) shall We (Allah*) bring you out once again". This interesting claim once more. Interesting because Allah never has proved his power over death - yes, he has not proved any kind of power at all, and not even his own existence - Muhammad had lots of big words about his god, but he never was able to prove a single comma even (like many other self-proclaimed "prophets" through the centuries). Whereas if the old books tell the truth, Yahweh, Jesus, and even Paul really proved it (Matt. 27/52, Mark 5/41, John 11/44, Luke 7/15, not to mention the resurrection of Jesus himself, f.x. Matt.28/6.) Also see 7/158i above.

033 20/57c: "Hast thou (Moses*) come to drive us (Ramses II*) out of our land - - -". As said there is nothing like this in the Bible. But also in the Quran there is nothing which could give the mighty Ramses II - or his advisers - suspicions like this. This part of the debate is illogical - Ramses II was too mighty a pharaoh for posing such a question to slaves, even a big bunch of slaves.

034 20/60a: "The Pharaoh (Ramses II) withdrew - - -". From an audience with a pharaoh it is not the pharaoh who withdraws - and definitely not a mighty potentate of the East like Ramses II. This is said by someone who did not know about or forgot about the formalities at such a court. No god would make such a break of rules. Then who made the Quran?

035 20/61b: "Forge not ye (Ramses II*) a lie against Allah - - -". Most of the details in this story are different from the Bible, included this. See 20/57b+c above.

036 20/61c: "- - - lest He (here indicated Allah*) destroy you - - -". Well, Allah has not proved the power of destroying anything at all in all the time since long before Pharaoh Ramses II and till now. Lots of claims, but no proved case (guess if Muslims had told about it if such a case had existed!"

037 20/64: "- - - he wins (all along) today who gains the upper hand". This is nonsense both military and realistically spoken. No matter what happened, Ramses II had the control - he was too powerful to win over in just such a small confrontation. Which also the result of it shows - according to both the Quran and even more the Bible, it took a lot more - and very much tougher means - before he gave in (2. Mos. Ch. 7-11).

038 20/66-69: Roughly the same which happened according to the Bible, but nearly none of the detail are from there.

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#####039 20/69-70a: The magicians of the pharaoh all became Muslims when they saw Moses performing real miracles. All the same the Quran - and Muhammad - repeats and repeats and repeats that the reason why Muhammad was unable to perform miracles, included making real prophesies, was that nobody would believe anyhow. This is one of the scenes which make it clear that Muhammad knew he was lying each time he used those excuses and “explanations”. That no-one would believe if they witnessed miracles, contradicts all psychological knowledge – strengthened by the fact that Muhammad himself here told it worked. He also knew at least some of the miracles Jesus performed, and all the followers they brought him. Contradiction both of Muhammad's intelligence - he was too intelligent not to know it was a lie - of reality, and of science.

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##040 20/70a: “So the magicians were thrown down to prostration (because Moses had done a real miracle*): they said: ‘We believe in the Lord of Aaron and Moses (because they had seen the miracle*).” But Muhammad contradicted this effect:

####Muhammad many times in the Quran explains that the reason for that he/Allah would/will make no miracles or give other real proofs, was that it would not make anyone believe anyhow – AND HERE ALL THE MAGICIANS BECAME BELIEVERS BECAUSE OF JUST ONE SMALL MIRACLE. (This is one of the reasons why one knows Muhammad knew he was lying each time he used this excuse – he had himself told that miracles worked.)

(At least 5 contradictions).

041 20/70-76: This is not from the Bible. From where is it? (But it fits Muhammad's standard concept for Muslims contra non-Muslims very well. Little or no creative fantasy gives little variety and a boring result. No god literature - Muslims saying the Quran is excellent literature simply have not an idea of what they are talking about. But not unlikely mullahs and religious scholars have read little real literature from good writers.

042 20/71b: "Surely this (Moses*) must be your (magicians'*) leader - - -". Here something is wrong. Moses had grown up in the same circles as the pharaoh (Ramses II). Ramses knew him and his history and knew he had been far away for 40 years (though unspecified in the Quran - much is lacking of information in the Quran; a hallmark on medium and low quality literature. A good writer also knows his details - just see the difference between a good writer and a piece in a young girls' romantic magazine (as literature much of the Quran is not of higher standard than that, even though the language itself is polished and thus likely better in the original - but that does not make it better as literature)).

043 20/71c: "- - - I (Ramses II*) will cut off your hands and feet on opposite sides - - -". If our sources are correct, Egypt at that time did not use this Arabian kind of punishment.

#044 20/71d: “- - - I (Pharaoh Ramses II*) will have you crucified - - -”. If not our sources are very wrong, Egypt at that time did not crucify people.

045 20/72a: "They said: 'Never shall we (the magicians*) regard - - -". See 20/49 above.

046 20/72b: "Never shall we (the magicians*) regard thee (Ramses II*) as more than the Clear Signs - - - etc." Not in the Bible - just like much more in this story (we do not comment on all of it). See 20/57b+c above.

047 20/73a: "- - - we (the magicians of Ramses II*) have believed in or Lord (here indicated Allah*) - - -". Wrong, as Allah was unknown in the old Egypt - a historical fact. Yahweh might have been possible - information from the Jews - but not Allah.

048 20/73b: "- - - may He (Allah*) forgive us (the magicians of Ramses II*) our faults - - -". All the other things aside; Allah only can forgive if he exists and is a real god.

As for forgiving from Allah: See 2/187d above.

049 20/73c: "- - - for Allah is Best and Most Abiding". Allah was not known at that time - some 2ooo years before Muhammad. No traces of such a god or religion has ever been found there.

050 20/73-76: Not in the Bible (like so much in the Quran) - see 20/57b+c above.

051 20/75a: "But such (people*) as come to Him (Allah*) as Believers who have worked righteous deeds - for them are ranks exalted". If Allah exists and is a major god. And if the Quran has described him correctly.

052 20/76c: "Gardens of Eternity, beneath which flow rivers - - -". The most used Arabism in the Quran - see 4/13d above.

#053 20/78b: “Then the Pharaoh pursued them with his forces, but the waters completely overwhelmed them and cover them up”. May be the water covered up the troops, but not the Pharaoh - - - Ramses II did not drown, and he did not die until years later according to science. Another thing: They most likely did not cross the Red Sea proper. The original Hebrew Bible in reality uses a name that also has the meaning “Sea of Reeds”. The Sea of Reeds - also named Timsah Lake - was a big, shallow lake south of the Bitter Seas in the area where you now find the Suez Canal. For Moses to walk past a big lake with his some 2 million Jews (600ooo men + women and children according to the Bible) and belongings and animals is one thing. To march down the western side of the Red Sea and plan to cross that sea by boats they did not have, is quite another thing – remember that they did not know that Yahweh would split the sea (and most of them hardly had believed it if they had been told). The fact that the Hebrew name for the sea they crossed (?) – Yam Suph – also means “the Sea of Reeds” is mentioned in footnotes many times in NIV – and in other literature. Similar claims that all – included the pharaoh drowned – in 7/103 – 10/90 -17/103 – 23/48 - 26/66 – 27/14 – 28/40 – 40/37 – 43/55 – 44/25-28 – 51/40 – 69/9-10 - 73/16 – 79/25. We may add that science seems to be pretty sure that if the Exodus happened, it happened around 1235 BC = during the reign of Ramses II. As we know that Ramses did not drown, Islam dearly wants it to have happened earlier and under a less known pharaoh that we do not know from what he died, but as so often they only backs up the claim with speculations. And not to forget: If it happened much earlier the "known" times do not add up.

054 20/79b: "Pharaoh (Ramses II*) led his people astray instead of leading them aright". This may or may not mean the Ramses II should have made Egypt Muslim - 2ooo years before Muhammad and the first known mentioning of Islam or of Muhammad's version of Allah. No comment.

055 20/80b: "- - - We (Allah*) made a Covenant with you (the Jews*) on the right side of (Mount Sinai) - - -". Convenient - in old Arab superstition the right side was the good side, whereas the left one was the bad side. Another point is that according to the Bible the involved god was Yahweh, not Allah. But also see 20/80c just below.

Another point: What is the right side of a mountain? - clear language in the Quran?

Yet another point: A. Yusuf Ali (YA2601) unashamed translates "the right side" with "the Arabian side". What does this tell about Muslims' way of thinking?

056 20/80c: (YA2601): "The Arabian side of (Mt.*) Sinai (Jabal Musa) was the place where Moses received his commission before going to Egypt". "The Arabian side" = east Sinai. But Mt. Sinai was and is in the south of Sinai. One does not know 100% sure which mountain it was/is, but Islam claims it is Jabal Musa - Moses' Mountain - and this likely is correct (also Mt. Sinai is reckoned to be another name for Mt. Horeb). Or is there any Muslim belief that the Arabian side of the mountain (here east in case) is "the right side"? - there is no indication for such a meaning in the Quran. No comments, but also see 20/80b just above.

##################Another point is that as Mt. Sinai naturally is situated in Sinai (today very likely Jabal Musa (34 degrees east, 28.5 degrees east. Roughly 70 km north northwest from Sharm-el-Sheik (Sharm el Shaykh) far south in central Sinai. Also Islam confirms that it was here Moses met his god and got the mission to take the Jews out from Egypt. This is far from Madyan in Arabia), The Quran here confirms that Muhammad's Midian was in Sinai, not in northeast Arabia. You find the same confirmation f.x. in 19/52

057 20/81b: "- - - those on whom descends My (Allah's*) Wrath do perish indeed". Often claimed, never once in 1400 years unmistakably demonstrated. Also see 3/37b above.

058 20/82b: "- - - I (Allah*) am (also) He that forgives - - -". This Allah only can do if he exists and is a god (or the victim for the sin).

As for forgiving from Allah: See 2/187d above.

059 20/82c: "- - - I (Allah*) am (also) He that forgives - - -". But what effect can (prayers for) forgiving have in Islam. If everything is predestine according to Allah's unchangeable Plan, forgiving can change nothing - what is decided years and decades ago, will happen no matter.

As for the value of prayers in Islam, also see 62/9c. And if you combine 62/9c with 67/9c - a strong one - you get something thought-provoking. (And relevant here: Muslims often are taught that a question or problem can have 2 or more true and correct solutions - Islam is forced to teach this, because if not, many of the mistakes and contradictions in the Quran become too obvious. But this ONLY is true if parallel true solutions are possible. In cases where 2 or more possible solutions are mutually excluding each other, maximum 1 of the mutually excluding ones can be true. It should be a bit thought provoking for Muslims, that just this "small" difference in theoretical thinking and teaching, was one of the reasons (there were several of course) for why Europe and the West exploded into the Technical Revolution, while the Muslim area stagnated). Two star examples are: 1) Full predestination is not possible even for an omnipotent god to combine with even the smallest piece of free will for man - the two are mutually excluding. The same for full and unchangeable predestination long time before, combined with any claimed effect of prayers - the two are mutually excluding each other.)

######The point is that to forgive - or for that case to punish or reward or fulfill prayers - means for Allah to change his Plan considering the sinner/person, which according to the Quran is something nobody and nothing can make him do. See 2/187d above. If full predestination is true, like the Quran states MANY places, neither free will for man, nor forgiving can exist, and prayers have no meaning - everything is predestined and cannot be changed. Of course you may say that also f.x. the forgiving was predestined, but then it is not religion any more, but theater.

060 20/82f: "- - - true guidance". There is not much true guidance in a guide-book full of errors and "ghost-written" by someone who likes power and wealth for bribes and women - and believing in betrayal and even in lies and broken oaths. Also see 2/2b, 7/192a, and 16/107b above.

061 20/83: "What made thee hasten in advance of thy people, O Moses?" (This is a real question, not a rhetoric one.) Why did an omniscient god have to ask? Not from the Bible - see 20/57a+b above.

062 20/83-84: Not from the Bible, actually partly contradicting it - see 20/57a+b above.

##063 20/85b: “- - - the Samiri had led them astray”. But the Jews still had not arrived in Samaria and there existed no Samaris (actually the name Samaria/Samarians/Samaritans as far as we can find, was not coined until 722 (?) BC under the little known king Omri who bought the land and built and named the town (1. Kings 16/24) - more than 500 years after the exodus that happened (if it happened) ca. 1235 BC). Also no Samiri is mentioned here in the Bible. Muslims try to “explain” the mistake by saying may be it is meant “shmeer” = stranger, or “shomer” = watchman = samara in Arab (irrelevant as the Jews did not speak Arab). - - - but if you cherry-pick from a whole language, it always is possible to find words that are look-alike – and that the Arab word here is a look-alike, is totally irrelevant, as these Jews of the old hardly spoke Arab as mentioned, and thus did not use the word "samarar". It also is clear that the top translator, Abdullah Yusuf Ali, meant it is a name, not a work or something - he used capital 1. letter in the name. The same goes for other translations we have. But if the Quran means some other thing than it says here – or is possible to misunderstand - how many other places in the book are there similar or worse/religious mistakes? Similar claims in 20/87 – 20/95.

It is here telling about Islam's ways of getting out of problems or mistakes, that one of the "explanations" for who this person could have been who was a Samiri (the name Samaritan is used in some translations) at the time of Moses, is that was "'a man of the Jewish clan of the Samaria', i. e. the ethnic and religious group designated in later times as the Samaritans - - -" (quoted from A20/70a). This in spite of that no such group or clan or sect existed at that time and not for another 600+ years. This "explanation" is backed by top Islamic thinkers like Tabari and Zamakhshari.

If no explanation is possible, then make up one. Al-Taqiyya (the lawful lie) is not only accepted, but recommended in Islam "if necessary" to defend or promote the religion.

064 20/87b: "- - - the weight of the ornaments - - -". There is some dishonest Muslim slander connected to this. When the Jews left Egypt, they were given valuables by the locals. Muslims say they must have use dishonest means to get it and cheated the Egyptians (A20/73). This is dishonest because it is told in the Bible how it happened, and Muslim scholars who read the Bible to find weak point to use, impossibly can have overlooked it, especially as it was a point of interest for them - the Bible is bigger than the Quran, but it is not that big. The Bible says (2. Mos. 12/35-36): The Israelites did as Moses instructed and asked the Egyptians for articles of silver and gold and clothing. The Lord had made the Egyptians favorably disposed toward the people, and they gave them what they asked for; so they plundered the Egyptians". It thus was not a question of cheating, but of divine action according to this book. But it is easy for Muslims to believe in the cheating Jews (according to Islamic sources it cannot have been too much - YA2607 hints at one or two man-loads.) The real mechanism for the Egyptians' willingness to give, may f.x. have been panic over what had just happened; the unanimous death of all firstborn in Egypt, and a desperate wish to for any price get these people away.

One point we have heard not one Muslim comment on, and not seen one Muslim scholar write about, is if this limited amount of gold and valuables were fair payment for generations of slave work they had been forced to do in Egypt?

065 20/89: "Could they (the Jews*) not see that it (the golden calf*) could not return them a word (for answer), and that it had no Power either to harm them or to do them good?". This also goes for Allah: He has to this date never given an unmistakable answer, never unmistakably harmed anybody, nor unmistakably done the least good to anybody (guess if Islam had told about it if there had been just one single proved incident!)

###There also is another point: The Quran many places ridicules pagans for believing in images of pagan gods. But the pagans ever so well knew the images were not themselves gods - in spite of what the Quran indicates. They very well "knew" that the images only were symbols for their gods, and when they believed and prayed, it was to the believed gods represented the images. Muhammad seems to have believed the pagans treated the images as if they were real gods. Any god had known better - then who made the Quran?

066 20/91c: Jews in Sinai said: “We will not abandon this cult (the golden calf*), but we will devote ourselves to it until Moses returns to us.” And Moses was very angry when he returned and found a live pagan cult among his people. But contradiction:

7/149: In this verse the Jews found they had sinned, and they repented before Moses returned in the next verse, 7/150.

Any explanation?

067 20/92-94: Not from the Bible (also 20/90-91 is not really from the Bible). See 20/57b+c and 20/85 above.

068 20/95-97: Not from the Bible - like so much "Biblical" stuff in the Quran. See 20/57b+c above.

069 20/96a: "- - - the Messenger - - -". Here is meant Moses, but the title "Messenger" is not used anywhere in the Bible and has no definition and thus no meaning there (the word is used infrequently, but not as a title). Muhammad has used it as a parallel to his own self introduced title - a "confirmation" of that he was in the same league as Moses.

070 20/98a: "(Moses said*) - - - god of you all (Jews*) is Allah - - -". The Bible disagrees. And so does science, as neither it nor Islam has found a single clear trace of Allah older than 610 AD. And actually also the Quran disagrees, as it proves Yahweh and Allah is not the same god, and it is clear from many sources that the god of the Jews was Yahweh (who, also in spite of Muhammad's many claims, was another and different god).

071 20/98c: "- - - all things He (Allah*) comprehends in His knowledge". If he knows and understands everything, why then does he have to test people? And why so many mistakes, etc. in the Quran?

072 20/99a: "Thus do We (Allah*) relate to thee (Muhammad*) - - -". The huge question is if any god at all has contacted Muhammad - lots of claims and lots of mistakes, etc. are the only indication for the real "truth". The real truth is that no god ever was involved in a book as full of mistakes and worse as the Quran. To blame that book on a god is to slander and insult that god.

##073 20/99c: "- - - a Message from our (Allah's*) own Presence". = The Quran, which is claimed to be a copy of the timeless "Mother Book" (13/39b, 43/4b+c, 85/21-22) which Allah made before the creation of the world or which perhaps has existed since eternity, and which is so good and perfect that Allah and his angels revere it in their Heaven (look at all the errors, etc. and see if you believe this). Copies of this book is claimed to be sent down to all prophets and messengers for Allah through the times - 124ooo or more according to Hadiths. It is said the books have varied some from time to time to fit the changing times, but it is not explained how copies of one and the same timeless book can vary - but there is much which is not explained in the Quran, and many contradictions Muslims and Islam refuse to see.

074 20/100b: "- - - verily they (non-Muslims*) will bear a burden on the Day of Judgment". If Allah exists. If he is behind the Quran. And if the Quran in addition is 100% true.

075 20/102b: "- - - the sinful - - -". Beware that when the Quran uses words like this, it is in accordance with its own partly immoral moral code. We also may mention that just this word often covers very different deeds, acts, words, and thoughts in the Quran and Islam, than in more normal religions (Islam is a religion of war - in spite of its loud slogans), not to mention how much its meaning in the Quran often differs from the basic rule of all human moral; "do against others like you want others do against you". Read the surahs from Medina and weep.

One small remark: As Yahweh's religion and f.x. moral code at many points are totally different from Allah's, you may qualify for Yahweh's Paradise even if Muslims condemn you to Hell - if both gods exists.

076 20/106+107: “He will leave them (mountains/mountain chains that will be removed*) as plains smooth and level. Nothing crooked or curved wilt thou see in their place”. This would be correct on a flat Earth. But as the Earth is curved, there has got to be curved lines at least where the big mountain chains have been removed. Any god had known this.

077 20/108c: "- - - no crookedness - - -". Beware that when the Quran uses expressions like this, it is in accordance with its own partly immoral moral code.

078 20/110a: "He (Allah*) knows what (appears to his creatures as) before or after or behind them - - -". Allah knows and predestines everything. But why then does he have to test even his own followers??

079 20/112c: "- - - deeds of righteousness - - -". Beware that when used in the Quran, expressions like this are relative to the Quran's own and rather "special" (partly immoral) moral code.

080 20/113a: “Thus We (Allah*) sent this (the Quran*) down - - -“. No book with that many mistakes is revered as a Mother Book (13/39b, 43/4, 85/21-22) by an omniscient god, and no omniscient god makes a copy of a book full of mistakes and sends it down as a holy book and the source for a religion dedicated to himself. The Quran with all its errors, etc. is not from any god - it is heresy, injustice, and slander against any god to accuse him of having made such a book.

081 20/113d: "- - - explained in detail some of the warnings - - -". This is worth remembering: It claims to explain some of the warnings. Most Muslims - and other texts in the Quran - claims the book explains everything in detail. This even though it is not even naivety to believe that such an after all small book can explain everything, not to mention in detail. This even more so as only parts of the book is used for explaining, and on top of that many of the "explanations" are invalid or wrong.

######T

More down to the Earth: Muslims often explains away mistakes, etc. in the Quran with the claim that what is written there is not what is meant - it is a parable or an allegory or something. A book where you have to guess what is literally meant and what are parables - and what the parables in case mean - definitely is not easy.

######That the Quran tells - directly or indirectly, but clearly - that the texts in the Quran is clear, explained by Allah, and to be understood literally, you find f.x. these places: 3/7b, 3/138a, 6/114ca, 11/1b, 15/1d, 17/12h, 18/1d-e, 18/2a, 19/97b, 20/113b+c, 24/34, 24/54j, 26/2a, 27/1b-d, 28/2, 36/69e, 37/117c, 39/28b, 41/3da, 43/2a, 43/3c, 43/29b, 44/2b-c, 44/13d, 44/58b, 54/17a, 54/22b, 54/32a+b, 54/40a, 65/11f, and 75/19 Worth remembering each time a Muslim or Islam tries to "explain" away errors, etc. by claiming the text means something different from what it says. In such cases either the Muslim/Islam lies when he/she claims the text means something different from what it says (the claim often is that it is a parable or something), or the Quran lies when it says that the book uses clear texts where nothing else is indicated.

The listed points are all collected under 3/7b and 44/58b.

Or perhaps Allah is so clumsy and helpless when he explains things, that he needs help from humans to explain what "he really means"? (Nonsense to say the least about such claims lying under such "explanations".)

WHO CAN EXPLAIN SOMETHING BETTER AND MORE CORRECTLY AND COMPLETELY THAN AN OMNISCIENT GOD?

082 20/114a: “High above all is Allah, the King, the Truth!” Allah as described in the Quran at best represents partly truth and partly mistakes. And does he even exist?

083 20/114d: "- - - revelation - - -". See 4/47c, 5/59e, 15/1d above.

084 20/114e: "- - - knowledge". Beware that when the Quran uses words like this, it normally only means knowledge about Islam and related subjects. All other knowledge was "foreign knowledge" and at best disliked, at worst fought against with harsh means.

###085 20/116b: “Prostrate yourself to Adam”. This is one of the revealing differences which make it impossible that Yahweh and Allah can be the same god: The differences between the paradises - here the differences between the angels. In Allah's paradise the angels indisputably is of a much lower standing than humans - if not they did not have to prostrate themselves to the humans. In Yahweh's paradise it is not so directly said, but angels clearly are of higher standing than man. (In addition there f.x. are the enormous differences between how humans live in the two paradises). If Yahweh and Allah had been the same god, they had had the same angels and the same paradise. To use the understatement of the century: That is not the case.

This is one of the at least 100% proofs for that also this of Muhammad's claims is wrong.

086 20/120: "- - - kingdom - - -". Kingdoms could for natural reasons not exist in the claimed lifetime of Adam. He would not even know what the word meant.

087 20/122b: "- - - Guidance - - -". Guidance from something similar to the Quran, is not much worth as guidance. Also see 2/2b above.

088 20/123b: "- - - whosoever follows My (Allah's*) Guidance, will not lose his way, nor fall in misery". As the Quran is not Allah's guidance (if he exists), as no god would ever be involved in a book with a miserable quality like the Quran (with the possible exception of the polished language), this does not concern the Quran.

089 20/123c: "- - - My (Allah's*) Guidance - - -." If here is meant the Quran, there is not much guidance in a book with that much mistakes, contradictions, invalid logic, etc.

090 20/123d: "- - - whosoever follows My (Allah's*) Guidance, will not lose his way, nor fall into misery". Often claimed, never proved.

091 20/124a: "- - - whosoever turns away from My (Allah's*) Message, verily for him is a life narrowed down - - -". Often claimed, never proved.

092 20/127a: "- - - thus do we (Allah*) recompense him who transgress beyond bonds and believes not in our signs - - -". Not unless Allah exists, and is something supernatural. (He is not a god if he is behind the Quran - too much is wrong in that book - but he may well punish if he belongs to the dark forces.)

But how can Allah recompense - punish (or for that case reward) - without changes in his predestined Plan? - changes which are impossible, according to several verses in the Quran.

093 20/128a: “Is it not a warning to men (to call to mind) how many generations before them We (Allah*) destroyed, in whose haunts they (now) move? Verily, in this are signs for men endued with understanding”. This is a theme Muhammad/the Quran frequently return to: In the Middle East there were scattered ruins from towns and hamlets and houses. Muhammad told that they all were remnants from earlier “unbelievers” punished by Allah for not believing their supposed prophets. As usual without a single proof for all places put together. (In Pakistan this year Muslims proposed to put placards with quotes like this on old ruins - proofs and warnings about the fate of “infidels”. This really tells something about those Muslims and about the level of education even today - in 2007 AD (This was written in the 2007 AD edition of "1000+ Mistakes in the Quran" originally). What then about naïve, primitive and zero educated poor people 610-632 AD? - were they easily “impressed”?)

His explanation is even more difficult to believe, as any professor and even student of archaeology can give many other explanations for ruins in arid areas - and especially in arid areas where the inhabitants were all waging war against everybody else at times.

Absolutely not a valid sign without a real proof.

094 20/128b: "- - - how many generations before them We (Allah*) destroyed - - -". A Most Merciful, Most Forgiving, benevolent and good god?".

095 20/129b: "- - - a term appointed - - -". Predestination again. Allah predestines every detail in your and everybody's life - included for all animals and all inanimate existence. And the predestination is not possible to change - - - which means no free will for man, no effect of prayer, forgiving not possible, etc.

096 20/131b: "- - - We (Allah*) test them (people*) - - -". The old question: Why does a predestining, omniscient god need to test anyone at all - - -.

097 20/131c: "- - - but the provision (Paradise*) of thy Lord (Allah*) is better and more enduring". Often claimed, never documented. And the description in the Quran is not valid a real god: Mentally and intellectually boring, empty luxury, good food, drinks, and clothes - and plenty of sex for the men. Only bodily pleasures + the somewhat nearness of Allah. The difference from the Bible's Paradise is one of the strong proofs for that Yahweh and Allah are not the same god - if they had been, their Paradise had been one and the same.

098 20/132a: "We (Allah*) ask thee (Muslims or Muhammad*) not to provide sustenance - - -". No - and this even though Muhammad was married to a 15 years older rich widow (though some thinks she may have been a little younger, or that (one or more of) the children were not Muhammad's). But later Allah or Muhammad changes their minds: Sustenance and more via thieving/robbing/extortion, raids, and wars.

099 20/132b: "- - - We (Allah*) provide it (sustenance*) for thee (people*)." Not unlike 11/7a above.

Another question: Who really provides it? - Allah? - nature + work? – or perhaps thieving/looting?

100 20/133c: "Why does he (Muhammad*) not bring us (people*) a Sign from his Lord (Allah*)?" This actually was and is one of the big questions - Muhammad never was able to prove anything of any consequents concerning his claims and his new religion, even though both friends and opponents asked for proofs, and even though proofs would mean much for his preaching and for the progress of Islam. He had to explain away all such questions, sometimes with lies (f.x. no intelligent man knowing a little about people believe that miracles would not make at least some skeptics Muslims).

101 20/133e: "Has not a Clear Sign come to them (non-Muslims*) of all that was in the former Books of Revelation - - -". There may have been, but in case for Yahweh.

102 20/135a: "- - - the straight and even way". The road to the Quran's and Islam's paradise - see 10/9f above. It may be worth reflecting over that in the Quran the road to Paradise is the easy road, whereas in the Bible it is the difficult ("narrow") road. Populism vs. realism? Allah and Yahweh the same god and fundamentally the same religion? You bet not.

103 20/135b: " - - - Guidance (the Quran*)". There is no reliable guide in a book that full of mistakes and even at least a little dishonesty.

3851 + 103 = 3954 remarks.

00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000

Not formed like questions for proofs, but what needs to be proved normally easy to see all the same. And: References you do not find here, go to "1000+ Comments on the Quran".


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This work was upload with assistance of M. A. Khan, editor of islam-watch.org and the author of "Islamic Jihad: A Legacy of Forced Conversion, Imperialism, and Slavery".